Topic: Glands of the Head and NeckSource: Internal
Explanation ready
562 You are examining a case of goitre and observe that it moves with deglutition. The movement occurs due to the attachment of the thyroid gland by Berry's ligament, to which of the following structures?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Hyoid bone
B) Cricoid cartilage
C) Tracheal rings
D) Thyroid cartilage
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The movement of the thyroid gland with deglutition is due to the attachment of Berry's ligament to the cricoid cartilage.
Ligament of Berry:
The pretracheal fascia encloses the thyroid gland to form its false capsule. This capsule is thickened posteriorly and on either side forms a suspensory ligament which is known as ligament of Berry or lateral thyroid ligament. The posteromedial aspects of the lobes of the thyroid are attached to the side of the cricoid cartilage by the ligament of Berry. It also prevents the thyroid gland from sinking into the mediastinum.
Q1277.
Anatomy
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Glands of the Head and NeckSource: Internal
Explanation ready
A 28-year-old male was rushed to the ER after a road traffic accident. He has extensive trauma to the neck, and an emergency mid-line tracheostomy was performed. All of the following structures are prone to injury except:
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Isthmus of thyroid
B) Arteria thyroid ima
C) Inferior thyroid artery
D) Inferior thyroid vein
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
The structure that is not damaged during the emergency tracheostomy is the inferior thyroid artery, as it is not a mid-line structure.
Isthmus, arteria thyroid ima, inferior thyroid vein are in the midline and are prone to damage during tracheostomy.
Q1278.
Anatomy
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Glands of the Head and NeckSource: Internal
Explanation ready
The newly discovered salivary glands are predominantly present over
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Soft palate
B) Torus tubarius
C) Posterior rd of the tongue
D) Eustachian tube
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The newly discovered salivary glands are predominantly present over torus tubarius. Torus tubarius is the anatomical structure formed by the cartilage that supports the entrance of the auditory tube.
The proposed name of these newly identified glands is tubarial salivary glands. These glands extend caudally to the pharyngeal wall and cranially to Rosenmuller's fossa.
Positron emission tomography/computed tomography with radio-labeled ligands to the
prostate-specific membrane antigen (PSMA PET/CT) can visualize these salivary glands with high sensitivity and specificity.
Clinical significance:
It has been reported that radiotherapy over the location of these glands has led to xerostomia and dysphagia. Sparing these glands, thus, might improve the quality of life of patients receiving radiotherapy.
Q1279.
Anatomy
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Tongue and PalateSource: Internal
Explanation ready
Which of the following demarcates the anterior 2/3rds of the tongue from the posterior 1/3rd?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Sigmoid sulcus
B) Gingival sulcus
C) Terminal sulcus
D) Median sulcus
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
The anterior 2/3rds of the tongue is demarcated from the posterior 1/3rd by the terminal sulcus, also known as the sulcus terminalis.
Sulcus terminalis divides the tongue into anterior and posterior parts. The anterior or the oral part faces superiorly and the posterior or the pharyngeal part faces posteriorly.
Option A: Sigmoid sulcus is present on the mastoid surface of the temporal bone
Option B: Gingival sulcus is present between the tooth and the surrounding gingival tissue Option D: Median sulcus is the central sulcus present on the tongue
Q1280.
Anatomy
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Tongue and PalateSource: Internal
Explanation ready
Identify the papillae marked A in the given image.
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Filiform papillae
B) Fungiform papillae
C) Foliate papillae
D) Circumvallate papillae
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
The structure marked A shows the foliate papillae which lie bilaterally on either side of the tongue near the sulcus terminalis.
Location of papillae in the tongue:
Filiform papillae - They are minute cylindrical or conical projections that are mainly present on the dorsal part of the anterior 2/3rd of the tongue.
Fungiform papillae - They are large, rounded and red in colour and are mainly present on the lingual margins and also on the dorsal surface of the tongue.
Foliate papillae - They are red, leaf-like mucosal ridges that are present bilaterally in two
zones at the sides of the tongue near the sulcus terminalis.
Circumvallate papillae - They are large cylindrical structures that are around 8-12 in number.
They are arranged in a V-shaped row immediately in front of the sulcus terminalis (not on the sides of the tongue).
Q1281.
Anatomy
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Tongue and PalateSource: Internal
Explanation ready
While examining the hypoglossal nerve in a stroke patient, you observe the following finding. Which of the following muscles is likely to be paralyzed?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Left styloglossus
B) Right styloglossus
C) Right genioglossus
D) Left genioglossus
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
The given image shows tongue deviation to the left, and the left genioglossus muscle is paralyzed in the above given clinical scenario.
Actions of genioglossus muscle:
When both the right and left genioglossi contract, they protrude the anterior part of the tongue out of the mouth in the midline. When only one muscle contracts, it protrudes and pushes the tongue to the opposite side.
It depresses the central part of the tongue.
It is supplied by the hypoglossal nerve.
In conditions affecting the hypoglossal nerve, the genioglossus muscle on that side is paralyzed. In such cases, when the patient protrudes the tongue, it deviates towards the affected side due to the
muscle contraction on the normal side.
The genioglossi are attached to the genial tubercle present on the mandible. This prevents the tongue from falling backwards and obstructing respiration. Hence this muscle is known as the safety muscle of the tongue.
Q1282.
Anatomy
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Tongue and PalateSource: Internal
Explanation ready
A patient who underwent skull base surgery developed drooping of the left side of his face and loss of taste sensation in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. However, the general sensation over the tongue is intact. Which of the following nerves is likely to be injured?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Glossopharyngeal nerve
B) Chorda tympani
C) Hypoglossal nerve
D) Lingual nerve
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The given case scenario is suggestive of damage to the facial nerve above the level of the stylomastoid foramen, resulting in injury to chorda tympani nerve.
Taste sensation from the anterior 2/3rd of the tongue is carried by chorda tympani nerve, whereas general sensation is carried by the lingual nerve.
What are the site and the timing of the origin of the primordial germ cells?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Gonads, 4th week of embryonic development
B) Epiblast, 2nd week of embryonic development
C) Gonads, 2nd month of embryonic development
D) Yolk sac, 4th week of embryonic development
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
Primordial germ cells originate in the epiblast, during the 2nd week of development.
Primordial germ cells (PGCs) are also known as primitive sex cells. During the 2nd week of development, they originate in the epiblast at the caudal end of the primitive streak.
They are the precursors of gametes in both genders. They pass through the primitive streak during gastrulation and reach the wall of the yolk sac. They migrate from the yolk sac in the 4th week and reach the developing gonads by the end of the 5th week.
During which phase of meiotic division are leptotene and zygotene stages seen?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Metaphase 1
B) Prophase 1
C) Metaphase 2
D) Prophase 2
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
Leptotene and zygotene are stages of prophase 1 of meiosis I.
Meiosis is a special type of cell division that reduces the chromosome number by half. It creates 4 daughter cells, each with haploid chromosomes distinct from the parent cell. Meiosis consists of two successive divisions called the first and second meiotic divisions. The various stages of meiosis are as follows:
During which stage of prenatal development does gastrulation occur?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Embryonic period
B) Pre-embryonic period
C) Gametogenesis
D) Fetal period
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
Gastrulation occurs during the embryonic period at the 3rd week of gestation.
During the 3rd week of intra-uterine life, three definitive germ layers are
formed, namely ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. The three germ layers develop from the epiblast by a process of cell proliferation and migration known as gastrulation. This transforms the bilaminar germ disc into a trilaminar structure.
Which of the following cells remain dormant in the testis until puberty?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Primordial germ cells
B) Primary spermatocytes
C) Secondary spermatocytes
D) Spermatids
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
Primordial germ cells (PGCs) remain dormant in the testis until puberty.
At puberty, PGCs differentiate into spermatogonial stem cells. These spermatogonial stem cells then give rise to type A spermatogonia. This marks the beginning of spermatogenesis.
Which of the following cells have haploid number of chromosomes?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Type A spermatogonia
B) Type B spermatogonia
C) Primary spermatocyte
D) Secondary spermatocyte
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
Secondary spermatocytes have haploid number of chromosomes.
During the process of spermatogenesis, each primary spermatocyte gives rise to 4 sperm cells (in contrast, each primary oocyte gives rise to only 1 ovum). The haploid cells formed during this process are secondary spermatocytes, spermatids, and spermatozoa.
The flowchart below shows the steps of spermatogenesis:
You reassured the parents after you noted cryptorchidism in a premature baby. Which of the following cells are responsible for secreting the hormone responsible for its normal descent?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Primordial germ cells
B) Spermatogenic cells
C) Sertoli cells
D) Leydig cells
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
Testosterone is involved in testicular descent. They are secreted by the Leydig cells.
Leydig cells are large polyhedral cells present in the connective tissue between the seminiferous tubules. Testosterone is synthesized from cholesterol in Leydig cells. The secretion of testosterone from Leydig cells is under the control of the luteinizing hormone (LH).
Which of the following cells remain dormant in the ovary until puberty?
A) Primordial germ cell
B) Primary oocyte
C) Secondary oocyte
D) First polar body
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
Primary oocytes remain dormant in the ovary until puberty. They are arrested in prophase (dicytotene/diplotene) of meiosis I and surrounded by flat epithelial cells (primordial follicles) in the ovary before puberty.
Steps of oogenesis before puberty are shown in the image below:
If the ovum is not fertilized, the corpus luteum may persist for about
Image not available for this question yet.
A) 48 hours
B) 1 week
C) 2 weeks
D) 3 weeks
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
If the ovum is not fertilized, the corpus luteum persists for about 14 days i.e., 2 weeks. The fate of the corpus luteum depends on the fertilization of the ovum:
No fertilization:
Corpus luteum of menstruation remains small and secretes progesterone.
This progesterone prepares the uterine endometrium to enter the progestational or secretory phase.
It persists for about 14 days.
It reaches maximum size by about 9 days after ovulation and starts to shrink 3–4 days before the next menses.
It undergoes fibrosis to become a white scar tissue called corpus albicans.
Ovum fertilized:
Corpus luteum of pregnancy is formed.
Regression of the corpus luteum is prevented by hCG secreted by the syncytiotrophoblast of the developing embryo.
It continues to grow and secrete progesterone that helps maintain the pregnancy.
It persists for 3-4 months until the placenta takes over.
Q1293.
Anatomy
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Pre-Embryonic Phase of DevelopmentSource: Internal
Explanation ready
Where does fertilization of the ovum commonly occur?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Fimbriae
B) Ampulla
C) Infundibulum
D) Isthmus
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
Fertilization of the ovum commonly occurs in the ampulla of the uterine tube.
The ovulated egg enters the infundibulum of the uterine tube and then passes into the ampulla. The sperms released into the female genital tract swim to the ampulla and fertilize the ovum there.
Timeline of fertilization:
The ovum released after ovulation is capable of being fertilized for 12-24 hours.
The spermatozoa after ejaculation are capable of fertilization for 24-48 hours.
Fertilization occurs within 1–2 days after ovulation.
Q1294.
Anatomy
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Pre-Embryonic Phase of DevelopmentSource: Internal
Explanation ready
During fertilization, all of the following barriers in the ovum are penetrated by the sperm except:
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Corona radiata
B) Zona pellucida
C) Oocyte cell membrane
D) Nuclear membrane
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
The sperm does not penetrate the nuclear membrane of the oocyte. The three barriers for sperm penetration in the ovum include:
Corona radiata
Zona pellucida
Oocyte cell membrane
After the fusion of the sperm and oocyte cell membranes, the nucleus of the ovum is converted to the female pronucleus. The nucleus of the sperm becomes the male pronucleus.
Q1295.
Anatomy
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Pre-Embryonic Phase of DevelopmentSource: Internal
Explanation ready
Which of the following is not an acrosomal enzyme?
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A) Acrosin
B) Hyaluronidase
C) Acid phosphatase
D) Alkaline phosphatase
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
Alkaline phosphatase is not an acrosomal enzyme. The three main acrosomal enzymes include:
Acrosin
Hyaluronidase
Acid phosphatase
The sperm binds to the zona pellucida through the glycoprotein ligands ZP3 and ZP2 (zona proteins). This binding causes the release of the acrosomal enzymes that allow the sperm to penetrate the zona pellucida. This is called acrosomal reaction.
Q1296.
Anatomy
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Pre-Embryonic Phase of DevelopmentSource: Internal
Explanation ready
Which of the following events is referred to as zona reaction?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Penetration of sperm through the zona pellucida
B) Complete dissolution of the zona pellucida
C) Alteration of zona pellucida to prevent polyspermy
D) Binding of sperm to zona proteins
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
Alteration of the properties of the zona pellucida to prevent the entry of other sperms is zona reaction.
After penetrating the zona, the sperm comes in contact with the oolemma (the plasma membrane of the oocyte). This contact results in weak membrane depolarization and a calcium wave.
The calcium wave triggers the release of lysosomal enzymes from the cortical granules lining the oolemma (cortical reaction). These enzymes hydrolyze the ZP3 receptor on the zona
pellucida. Digestion of ZP3 and alteration of zona pellucida (zona reaction) prevents other sperms from binding, thus creating a block to polyspermy.
Q1297.
Anatomy
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Pre-Embryonic Phase of DevelopmentSource: Internal
Explanation ready
What is the normal site of implantation of the blastocyst?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Endometrium and myometrium
B) Functional layer of the endometrium
C) Basal layer of the endometrium
D) Myometrium
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The blastocyst normally implants in the functional layer of the uterine endometrium.
In the secretory phase, three layers can be recognized in the endometrium: stratum compactum, stratum spongiosum, and stratum basale. The first two layers (stratum compactum and spongiosum) are together known as stratum functionale or the functional layer.
If implantation does not occur, the functional layer is shed off during menstruation. If implantation occurs, the functional layer is retained as the decidua.
Timeline of implantation:
3-4 days after fertilization: The morula (12-16 cells) enters the uterus.
4th day after fertilization: The advanced morula reaches the uterine lumen.
4-5 days after fertilization: The early blastocyst stage is seen.
6-7 days after fertilization: The blastocyst implants in the uterus. Implantation corresponds to 20-22 days of the menstrual cycle.
Q1298.
Anatomy
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Pre-Embryonic Phase of DevelopmentSource: Internal
Explanation ready
The bilaminar embryonic disc is made up of which of the following cells?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Cuboidal cells of hypoblast layer near amniotic cavity
B) Cuboidal cells of epiblast layer near blastocyst cavity
C) Columnar cells of epiblast layer near amniotic cavity
D) Columnar cells of hypoblast layer near blastocyst cavity
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
The bilaminar embryonic disc is made up of the epiblast layer (columnar cells) near the amniotic cavity and the hypoblast layer (cuboidal cells) near the blastocyst cavity.
On the 8th day of development, the embryoblast differentiates into two layers, hypoblast and epiblast, to form the bilaminar disc. Around the same time, a small amniotic cavity appears within
the epiblast. At this stage, the two layers of embryoblast are arranged as follows:
One layer of high columnar cells known as the epiblast layer, adjacent to the amniotic cavity
One layer of small cuboidal cells known as the hypoblast layer, adjacent to the blastocyst cavity
The image given below shows the embryonic disc with the epiblast and hypoblast layers.
Q1299.
Anatomy
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Pre-Embryonic Phase of DevelopmentSource: Internal
Explanation ready
Where does the Heuser’s membrane develop from?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Columnar cells derived from epiblast
B) Flattened cells derived from epiblast
C) Columnar cells derived from hypoblast
D) Flattened cells derived from hypoblast
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
Heuser's membrane or exocoelomic membrane develops from flattened cells derived from the hypoblast.
On day 9-10 of pre-embryonic development, flattened cells from the hypoblast begin to migrate to the abembryonic pole. They form a layer of cells just beneath the cytotrophoblast. This layer is called the Heuser's membrane. Once the blastocyst cavity is fully lined with Heuser's membrane, it is called the exocoelomic cavity.
The image below shows the formation of Heusner's membrane.
Q1300.
Anatomy
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Pre-Embryonic Phase of DevelopmentSource: Internal
Explanation ready
What is the part of extraembryonic mesoderm lining the amniotic cavity called?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Parietal or splanchnopleuric extraembryonic mesoderm
B) Visceral or splanchnopleuric extraembryonic mesoderm
C) Parietal or somatopleuric extraembryonic mesoderm
D) Visceral or somatopleuric extraembryonic mesoderm
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
The parietal or somatopleuric extraembryonic mesoderm lines the amniotic cavity.
The extraembryonic mesoderm is derived from yolk sac cells. Large cavities develop in extraembryonic mesoderm, and they join to form the extraembryonic cavity (or chorionic cavity). Formation of the extraembryonic cavity splits the extraembryonic mesoderm into two layers:
Parietal or somatopleuric extraembryonic mesoderm lining the trophoblast and outside of the amniotic cavity
Visceral or splanchnopleuric extraembryonic mesoderm lining the outside of yolk sac
The image given below shows the extraembryonic mesoderm.