Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
Which of the following cases of vitiligo are likely to have a poor prognosis?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) 1, 3, and 5
B) 1, 2, and 4
C) 3, 4, and 5
D) 1, 2, and 5
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
Poor prognostic factors for vitiligo:
Positive family history (patient 2)
Mucosal vitiligo (patient 1)
Lesions over bony prominences
Isomorphic Koebner's phenomenon (patient 5)
Non-segmental vitiligo
Leucotrichia, longer duration, and higher age at onset do not correlate significantly with progression.
Non-segmental vitiligo is characterized by a bilateral and symmetrical distribution of depigmented macules.
Segmental vitiligo is characterized by macules in a linear or flag-like pattern of mosaicism with a dermatomal distribution.
Q1177.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A child is brought to the OPD with the following skin finding. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding this condition? 145
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A) Eye and skeletal defects are seen
B) Epilepsy can occur
C) Mental retardation is present
D) Lesions corresponds to Langer lines
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
The image shows cutaneous macular hypopigmented whorls, streaks, and patches, corresponding to the lines of Blaschko, suggestive of hypomelanosis of Ito.
It is a rare neuroectodermal disorder of pigmentation. It is associated with epilepsy and mental retardation. Extracutaneous findings include neurological, ophthalmological, and skeletal defects.
Q1178.
Dermatology
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4m
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Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A girl was brought to the clinic by her parents for treatment of alopecia. They gave a history of erythematous vesicular rashes that evolved into verrucous growths a few months after birth. The lesions gradually resolved and left linear pigmentation as shown below. On examination, dental dystrophy was also noted. What is the inheritance pattern of this condition? 146
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A) Autosomal dominant
B) Autosomal recessive
C) X-linked recessive
D) X-linked dominant
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
The given clinical scenario is suggestive of incontinentia pigmenti. It is a rare X-linked dominant disorder with multisystemic ectodermal dysplasia that is usually lethal in males and presents in females with skin lesions, teeth abnormalities, alopecia, nail dystrophy, and ocular and neurological findings.
The skin lesions evolve through the following characteristic stages:
Vesicular
Verrucous stage
Hyperpigmented streaks and whorls
Linear hypopigmentation
Q1179.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
In a 6-year-old boy who presented with black stools, the following finding was noted. Endoscopy showed multiple polyps in the GI tract. Which of the following is false about this condition?
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A) Autosomal dominant condition
B) Patients need to undergo lifelong screening
C) Malignant transformation of polyps is common
D) Due to mutation of STK11 gene
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
The presence of multiple polyps in the GI tract along with lentigines on the lips is suggestive
of Peutz-Jeghers-Touraine syndrome. Malignant transformation of hamartomatous polyps is rare.
It is an autosomal dominant disease. It is due to the mutation of the serine/threonine kinase gene
(STK11).
Typical cutaneous features include lentigines of the lips (early feature). Associated melanocytic macules of buccal mucosa and digits are common. Hamartomatous polyps are present mainly in the jejunum but can occur throughout the GI tract.
Patients require lifelong screening as they are at high risk for carcinomas of the breast, ovary, colon, and stomach.
Q1180.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
All of the following drugs can cause hyperpigmentation in patients except:
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A) Amiodarone
B) Chloroquine
C) Minocycline
D) Beta-blockers
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
Beta-blockers do not cause hyperpigmentation. Drugs causing hypermelanosis:
Amiodarone
Tetracyclines
Chloroquine
Clofazimine
Phenytoin
Cytotoxic drugs like busulfan, cyclophosphamide, bleomycin, etc.
Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A patient with fever and joint pain developed pigmentation on the nose after a few days of taking NSAIDs as shown below. What is the diagnosis?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Melasma
B) Fixed drug eruption
C) Lichen planus
D) Chikungunya
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
The given clinical history of fever and joint pain and the image showing hyperpigmented macules on nose (chik sign) is suggestive of Chikungunya.
Post-chikungunya pigmentation (PCP) most commonly affects the nose and cheeks. It often appears as the fever subsides and may persist for about 3-6 months.
PCP mimics melasma and may be misdiagnosed if proper history is not taken.
Another close differential is fixed drug eruptions (FDE). FDE is a type of delayed hypersensitivity reaction. It is characterized by well-defined brown, hyperpigmented plaques that may follow vesiculobullous lesions. They occur on lips, hands, legs, face, genitalia, and oral mucosa, and can cause a burning sensation.They usually present 30 min to 8 h after drug exposure and recur at the same location on re-exposure. NSAIDs, Paracetamol and Cotrimoxazole are the most common drugs causing FDE.
The image below shows FDE on upper lip area:
Q1182.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A 40-year-old man presents with the given rash after he had taken NSAIDs for his knee pain. He reported that he developed the same rash in the same location 6 months ago when he took the same drugs for back pain. What is the most likely diagnosis? 148
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A) Drug hypersensitivity
B) Postinflammatory hyperpigmentation
C) Fixed drug eruption
D) Drug-induced hypermelanosis
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
The recurrence of hyperpigmentation occurring at the same site with the use of the same drug is characteristic of fixed drug eruption.
Fixed drug eruption is one of the most common drug-induced exanthems. The acute erythematous and bullous stages of fixed eruption characteristically settle leaving residual slate-brown hyperpigmentation, especially in those with darker skin types. The genitalia and perianal area are often affected.
Option A: Drug hypersensitivity is an immune-mediated reaction to a drug of which symptoms ranging from mild to severe include rash, anaphylaxis, and serum sickness.
Option B: Postinflammatory hyperpigmentation (PIH) is an acquired hypermelanosis occurring after cutaneous inflammation or injury e.g., acne vulgaris, atopic dermatitis, and impetigo.
Option D: Drug-induced hypermelanosis is localized or generalized hyperpigmentation that can be caused by a wide range of medications and chemicals. eg. busulphan. It doesn't necessarily occur at the same site with the reintroduction of drugs.
Q1183.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A lady developed hypopigmentation on her forehead as shown below. Which of the following chemicals is responsible for this condition?
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A) Mono-benzyl ether of hydroquinone
B) Crocein scarlet MOO and solvent yellow 3
C) p-phenylenediamine
D) Para-tertiary butylphenol
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
The lady has bindi leukoderma, which is caused by para-tertiary butyl-phenol (PTBP). It is present in adhesive sticker bindi.
This is called contact leukoderma or chemical leukoderma in which the chemical increases sensitivity and induces apoptosis of the melanocytes in the area of contact.
There is also evidence that azo dyes, by virtue of structural similarity to tyrosine, can directly inhibit melanogenesis by competing with that amino acid for binding with the tyrosinase enzyme.
The image below shows synthetic leather-/rubber-related leucoderma.
Mono-benzyl ether of Hydroq uinone (MBH)-Rubber antiox idant
p-Phenylenediamine (PPD)
Crocein scarlet MOO and sol vent yellow 3 (azo dyes)
The image below shows Alta depigmentation.
The image below shows hair dye depigmentation.
Q1184.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
During your dermatology posting, you see a case of naevus of Ota in the clinic. Which of the following is false about this condition?
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A) It mostly appears at birth or early childhood
B) It is distributed along trigeminal nerve
C) Bluish patchy dermal melanocytosis
D) It is commonly seen in males
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
Naevus of Ota is more commonly seen in females.
It is an extensive, bluish, patchy, dermal melanocytosis. A large number of elongated dendritic melanocytes can be seen scattered among collagen bundles mainly of the superficial dermis.
It affects the sclera and the skin adjacent to the eye. It is distributed along the first and the second branches of the trigeminal nerve.
Most lesions are present at birth or develop during the first year of life, increasing in size and number in subsequent years. Lesions are more common in Asians.
Pigment targeting Qswitched laser systems is the treatment of choice.
Q1185.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A Chinese woman brought her son to the clinic with the given finding. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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A) Nevus of Ota
B) Nevus of Ito
C) Nevus spilus
D) Becker nevus
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
This Chinese patient has a unilateral blue-greyish hyperpigmented macule on his shoulder, which is suggestive of nevus of Ito.
It affects the acromioclavicular region and upper chest. It primarily occurs in Chinese and Japanese people.
It is rarer than nevus of Ota which affects facial skin and sclera. It is distinguished from the nevus of Ota by its location in the area innervated by the posterior supraclavicular and lateral cutaneous brachial nerves.
Complications of nevus of Ota include meningeal melanocytoma of the brain, and malignant melanoma involving the meninges, choroid, iris, or orbit. In some rare cases, cutaneous melanoma can develop.
Pigment targeting Qswitched laser systems is the treatment of choice.
Becker nevus is a large, pigmented hairy patch on the shoulder, chest, or back of young males.
Nevus spilus is a congenital nevus presenting as a lentiginous macule that develops into multiple macules in a speckled distribution (image below).
Q1186.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A mother brought her daughter to the dermatologist with multiple spots on her face. The spots were increased after they came back from a vacation in Hawaii. Which of the following statements is false regarding this condition?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) It has an autosomal dominant inheritance
B) Increased number of melanocytes are seen
C) It is associated with xeroderma pigmentosa
D) It is caused by increased melanin
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The patient has dark brown macules on her face, that increase on sunlight exposure. This is suggestive of freckles or ephelis, which are produced due to increased melanin production by melanocytes on exposure to UV rays (with a normal number of melanocytes).
It is transmitted in an autosomal dominant pattern. They are seen in a number of inherited and acquired disorders including xeroderma pigmentosum, neurofibromatosis, and progeria. Freckles
are common in type 1 and type 2 skin types of Fitzpatrick Classification. First-line treatment is the use of a high SPF sunscreen.
Q1187.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A child is brought to the clinic with the following pigmented lesion. What is the most likely diagnosis? 151
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Junctional naevus
B) Compound naevus
C) Dermal naevus
D) Nevus spilus
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The given image suggests the most likely diagnosis to be compound naevus. It is characterized by a hyperpigmented papule surrounded by a symmetrical, lighter brown, macular area.
A compound naevus is a slightly raised, oval, or round papule with a symmetrical shape. This naevus is also pigmented, with shades of brown according to the patient’s skin color.
Based on the position of melanocyte aggregates, the acquired melanocytic naevi can be classified into:
Junctional - melanocytes in the dermo-epidermal junction
Compound - melanocytes in the dermo-epidermal junction and dermis
Dermal - melanocytes in the dermis
Q1188.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
Identify the pigmentation abnormality in the image shown below.
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Mongolian spot
B) Naevus of Ito
C) Congenital melanocytic naevus
D) Becker's naevus
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
The given image showing hyperpigmented lesion on shoulder associated with hypertrichosis is suggestive of Becker's naevus.
It is an epidermal melanocytic naevus with aggregation of melanocyte clusters in the epidermis. It is often hairy. The onset is around adolescence when there is an increased sensitivity to androgens especially in the distribution of outer arms, scapular area and chest.
A triad of features can be seen:
Hyperpigmentation
Hypertrichosis
Acne
Option A: Mongolian spots are slate blue areas in the lumbosacral region that spontaneously regress before puberty.
Option B: Naevus of Ito is unilateral hyperpigmentation in the acromioclavicular distribution. It is not known to have hypertrichosis or acne.
Option C: Congenital melanocytic nevi are common moles that become raised and have a cerebriform appearance and can be hairy. They can occur anywhere. The onset is at birth or soon after birth
Q1189.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A patient who presented with the given skin finding was diagnosed with nevus anemicus. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding this condition? [Image unavailable]
Image not available for this question yet.
A) A congenital vascular anomaly
B) Results from defective transfer of melanosomes
C) Rubbing the lesion induces no change
D) Also known as pharmacologic nevus
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
Nevus anemicus occurs due to increased sensitivity of local cutaneous blood vessels to catecholamines such as epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine (noradrenaline). This hypersensitivity results in persistent vasoconstriction leading to hypopigmentation. Hence, it is also known as a pharmacologic nevus.
It is a congenital, localized, cutaneous vascular anomaly presenting as a pale, irregularly shaped patch on otherwise normal skin. Histology and electron microscopic examination show no abnormality in melanocytes or melanization.
Rubbing the lesion
Diascopy at the border of the lesion
Nevus anemicus No change
The border between the lesio n and the normal skin disapp ears due to the blanching of t he normal skin
Nevus depigment osus
Lesion becomes re d
No change
Q1190.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
Which of the following is the reason for the development of a simple lentigo?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Increased melanin
B) Increased melanocytes
C) Increased melanosomes
D) Decreased melanophages
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
Simple lentigo occurs due to an increase in melanocytes at the dermal-epidermal junction.
Simple lentigo or lentigo simplex is a light to dark-brown or black macule that does not fade away once it appears. They usually appear during childhood and increase in number until the age of 40. It is more common in individuals with red hair and fair skin.
The image shows lentigo simplex- hyperpigmentation is evident in the basal and squamous epidermal cells.
Q1191.
Dermatology
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Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A 30-year-old pregnant lady is referred to the dermatology OPD with the given condition. What is the likely diagnosis? 153
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A) Systemic lupus erythematosus
B) Melasma
C) Vitiligo
D) Chloasma
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
This pregnant lady has chloasma or a mask of pregnancy. In non-pregnant women, it is called melasma.
Chloasma is very common in the 3rd trimester of pregnancy and is most marked in brunettes.
It is due to increased levels of estrogen and progesterone, stimulating the activity of melanocytes. Histopathology shows no increase in number but hyper-functional melanocytes. It resolves on its own after pregnancy.
Melasma is the most common cause of chronic facial melanosis. It is manifested by hyperpigmented macules that become more pronounced after sun exposure. Hypermelanosis affects mainly the upper lip, the malar regions, forehead, and chin. It is more common in women between 20-40 years. It is frequently seen in women on oral contraceptives.
Wood's lamp examination is useful to differentiate the level of pigmentation and treatment response:
Epidermal melasma- shows enhanced color contrast
Dermal melasma- shows less color contrast (more resistant to treatment)
Mixed melasma.
Melasma is more chronic and requires treatment with depigmenting agents like:
Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the condition this baby suffers from?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Associated with leptomeningeal melanocytosis
B) Coarse hair can develop on the lesion
C) No malignant potential
D) Treatment is surgical excision
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
The given image is suggestive of giant congenital melanocytic naevus or bathing trunk naevus. It has an increased malignant potential.
It is a very rare condition present in 1:20,000 births. This lesion is usually brown to black in color with a rough, warty, rugose, or cerebriform surface. To classify it as giant naevi, it should be gt;20cm in size. Coarse hairs can develop on it in due course.
These naevi are associated with leptomeningeal melanocytosis or neurofibromatosis.
Surgical excision is the mainstay of treatment and a cultured epidermal autograft is used to cover large postoperative surface area defects.
Q1193.
Dermatology
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4m
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Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
Identify the condition shown below:
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Epidermal verrucous nevus
B) Congenital melanocytic nevus
C) Melanoacanthoma
D) Malignant melanoma
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The image shows a child with a well-circumscribed, black, heterogenous lesion covered with hair. This is characteristic of a congenital melanocytic nevus (CMN). They may be present at birth or develop shortly thereafter. They are benign and can be brown, black, purplish, or red, and are usually a palpable lesion.
They can be classified based on size: small (lt;1.5 cm), medium (1.5-19.9 cm), and large or giant
(gt;20 cm). Larger CMN have a higher risk of developing malignant melanoma.
Management of CMN depends on the size and location of the lesion. Smaller nevi may be observed, while larger nevi or those at a higher risk for complications may require surgical excision, particularly if there is a concern for malignant transformation.
Complications of CMN include neurological abnormalities (intraparenchymal melanosis is the commonest finding), malignant melanoma, and other tumors like rhabdomyosarcoma.
The images below show different melanotic skin lesions:
Q1194.
Dermatology
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4m
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Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A new mother brings her 2-day-old baby to the pediatric OPD with the following skin findings on his back. Which of the following statements is false regarding this condition? 155
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Lesions develop in utero
B) Due to increased melanocytes
C) Associated with Down syndrome
D) Spontaneous regression usually occurs
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The given image shows Mongolian spots. The coloration is due to the arrested migration of melanocytes within the deep dermis and to the epidermis. It is not due to increased melanocytes.
These are congenital macular areas of bluegrey pigmentation of varying size and shape located on the lumbosacral area in normal infants. The lesion develops in-utero, increases during infancy, and then diminishes. Sometimes may occasionally persist into adult life.
These are associated with Down syndrome and congenital hemangioma. Extensive Mongolian spots have been associated with Hurler syndrome and GM1 gangliosidosis type 1.
Q1195.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
Which of the following is not a systemic cause of generalized hyperpigmentation?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Addison's disease
B) Hemochromatosis
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Vit B12 deficiency
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
Hyperthyroidism may cause generalized hyperpigmentation, not hypothyroidism.
Generalized hypermelanosis or hyperpigmentation can be due to a variety of systemic diseases. A few common diseases are mentioned below:
Identify the incorrect statement regarding eczema.
A) All eczema is dermatitis, but not all dermatitis is eczema
B) Pruritus is a hallmark clinical feature
C) Spongiosis is characteristic histopathological feature of chronic eczema
D) Acute eczematic eruption is typically oedematous, vesicular and may be exudative
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
Spongiosis is the characteristic histopathological feature of acute eczema. It refers to intercellular epidermal edema that leads to stretching and rupture of the intercellular attachments, with the formation of vesicles.
Eczema is inflammation of the skin seen in a variety of skin conditions. Dermatitis is used to include all types of cutaneous inflammation so:
'All eczema is dermatitis, but not all dermatitis is eczema' Aetiologically, eczema may be classified as:
The hallmark symptom of eczema is intense pruritus. Other findings are:
180 A 27-year-old male presents with a well-demarcated, coin-shaped erythematous plaque on his left shin. What is the likely diagnosis?
A) Atopic eczema
B) Nummular eczema
C) Pompholyx
D) Asteatotic eczema
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The above scenario is suggestive of nummular dermatitis or nummular eczema.
The diagnostic lesion of nummular dermatitis is a well-demarcated coin-shaped erythematous plaque with vesicles surrounding it. Later central clearing (resolution) and peripheral extension lead to annular or ring-shaped lesions. Initially, it is red and pruritic but later, it becomes more scaly and less exudative.
Common locations involved are:
Trunk
Extensor surfaces of extremities:
Men - Pretibial areas
Women - Dorsal aspects of hand
The image below shows nummular dermatitis. Note the typical shape and demarcation of the lesion.
A 5-year-old child is brought to the OPD with a hypopigmented, finely scaly patch on her face. There is a history of atopy in the family. What is the clinical diagnosis?
A) Leprosy
B) Pityriasis versicolor
C) Pityriasis alba
D) Atopic eczema
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
The above scenario of a hypopigmented, scaly patch is suggestive of pityriasis alba.
It is a pattern of dermatitis in which hypopigmentation is the most conspicuous feature. It is seen in the age group of 3-16 years.
Lesions have scaling and are usually not well marginated. In children, the lesions are often confined to the face and are most common on the cheeks and around the mouth and chin.
It is often a manifestation of atopic eczema but it is not confined to atopic individuals.
Option A: In leprosy, the hypopigmented patch is often associated with atrophy, loss of sensation, and loss of sweating. The lesion is not scaly.
Option B: In pityriasis versicolor the hypopigmented macules are perifollicular in
distribution. Fine, powdery branny scaling is present. Scratch sign positive. No relation to atopy. Option D: Atopic eczema is characterized by itchy papules, hypopigmentation is not a feature.
A 15-year-old girl presents with itchy lesions on her arm as shown. Her family history is positive for asthma. What could be the most probable diagnosis?
A) Seborrhoeic dermatitis
B) Atopic dermatitis
C) Allergic contact dermatitis
D) Erysipelas
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
The clinical scenario depicting pruritic lesions at a flexural site along with a family history of atopy (asthma) is suggestive of atopic dermatitis (AD) or atopic eczema (AE). The scratch marks and excoriations shown in the image are due to pruritis, which is the hallmark feature of AD.
AD is a chronic relapsing inflammatory condition. It presents with erythematous macules, papules and vesicles that often start in early childhood, usually less than 2 years old. The lesions later become excoriated and lichenified. It is frequently associated with dryness of the skin
and secondary infections. In infancy, the lesions initially appear on face (sparing the napkin area) and later on extensor aspect of knees and elbows as the child starts crawling. In later childhood and in adults, the principal site of involvement is flexures.
The filaggrin monomers in keratinocytes in the epidermis bind and aggregate keratin bundles and intermediate filaments to form the epidermal barrier. Any damage/dysfunction of this barrier is associated with an increased risk of developing AD. Damage to this barrier can be due to environmental factors (detergents, hard water, UV light) or local inflammatory
reactions. Dysfunction of the barrier can be due to genetic mutation of the FLG gene leading to reduced filaggrin production or local immunomodulatory effects leading to reduced filaggrin expression.
Other options:
Option A: Seborrheic dermatitis is a chronic inflammatory skin condition characterized by erythema, pruritus, scaling, flaking, or crusting of the skin. It is often associated with Malasezzia fungal infection. A milder form of seborrheic dermatitis of the scalp is commonly known as dandruff.
Option C: Allergic contact dermatitis (ACD) is an inflammatory condition caused due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction (Type 4 hypersensitivity) to a specific allergen that comes into direct contact with the skin.Patients usually present with pruritus, erythema, swelling,
papules, and papulovesicles. Some common allergens include nickel (found in artificial jewelry), PPD/Para phenylene diamine (in hair dye), chromate (in cement), rubber or latex, cosmetics, etc. Patch test (image below) is used for the diagnosis of ACD.
Option D: Erysipelas is a bacterial skin infection caused by Streptococcus pyogenes (Group A Streptococcus) characterized by raised, erythematous sharply demarcated rapidly spreading skin lesions, along with systemic symptoms like fever and chills. The skin may also have a peau d'orange or orange peel-like appearance.