Topic: Acne, Rosacea and Others - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A 40-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of erythematous papulopustular lesions over the center of her face. There is a background of erythema and telangiectasia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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A) Acne vulgaris
B) Rosacea
C) Systemic lupus erythematosus
D) Lupus pernio
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The patient comes with erythema and papules on facial convexities (central face), a characteristic feature of acne rosacea.
It is triggered by exposure to sunlight, spicy food, alcohol, or emotional disturbances. Patients also develop telangiectasia later. They also have a tendency for developing rapid flushing due to temperature change. Rosacea is more common in women of age 30-50 years.
The innate immune response in rosacea appears to be altered. There is increased Tolllike receptor 2 (TLR2) activity and increased protease activity.
Demodex mite proliferation in the pilosebaceous follicles of the face has also been suggested as a possible aetiological factor in cutaneous and ocular inflammation. The pathogenesis of ocular rosacea seems to be closely associated with meibomian gland dysfunction.
The table below shows the 4 subtypes and the corresponding treatment options. The subtypes are not equivalent to the progression of the disease.
The image below shows rosacea.
Subtype
Erythematotelangiectatic ros acea (ETTR)
Treatment
Sun avoidance and protectio nTopical ° receptoragonists
- brimonidine or oxymetazoli ne
Subtype Treatment
Papulopustular rosacea (PPR) Active inflammatory lesions:
Topical metronidazoleAzelaic acidIvermectinSodium sulfa cetamideSulfurPerilesional er ythema:BrimonidineOxymeta zoline
Phymatous rosacea Topical skinpeeling agent if there are large occluded folli clesElectrocautery or laser fo r telangiectases
Ocular rosacea Daily lid hygieneOily tearsu bstitute lubricating eye drops or aqueous gels
Q1127.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Acne, Rosacea and Others - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
Intake of which of the following drugs can produce an acneiform eruption?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Tetracycline
B) Phenytoin
C) Aminoglycoside
D) Quinolone
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
Drug-induced acne (acneiform eruptions) are associated with the following:
Clinically, acneiform eruptions are characteristically monomorphic. Drugs most commonly implicated in acneiform eruptions:
Worldwide- steroids
India- isoniazid (INH)
Q1128.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Acne, Rosacea and Others - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder presents with lesions on his face. He confides that he frequently picks at his face, regardless of the presence of acne. What is the diagnosis? 78
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Acne excoriée
B) Acne fulminans
C) Acne conglobata
D) Acne mechanica
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
This given image shows acné excoriée on the chin of a male with compulsive picking of the face using nail pliers and tweezers.
Acné excoriée is regarded as a selfinflicted skin condition in which the sufferer compulsively picks real or imagined acne lesions predominantly on the face. It is mostly seen in adolescent girls.
Other psychiatric disorders associated with acne are:
Body dysmorphic disorder - Some patients have acne as their prime symptom. The perceived acne is out of proportion to physical signs.
Eating disorders - reported in anorexia nervosa. Acne itself may be a predisposing factor for anorexia in vulnerable teenaged age groups who adopt a diet in an attempt to control their acne.
Option B: Acne fulminans or acne maligna is a rare and severe destructive form of acne presenting primarily in adolescent males. It most frequently affects the trunk but can affect the face and presents acutely in association with systemic symptoms.
Options C: Acne conglobata represents a rare and severe form of acne characterized by multiple and extensive inflammatory papules, tender nodules, and abscesses which commonly coalesce to form malodorous draining sinus tracts.
Option D: Acne mechanica describes acne that occurs at the site of repeated mechanical trauma and/or frictional obstruction of the pilosebaceous outlet resulting in comedo formation. Examples include ‘fiddler’s neck’, which may occur on the neck of violin players, and is characterized by welldefined plaques with the presence of comedones, lichenification, and pigmentation
Q1129.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Acne, Rosacea and Others - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
Which of the following is a preferred chemical peel agent for a dark-skinned patient with acne?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Pyruvic acid
B) Lactic acid
C) Jessener's solution
D) Glycolic acid
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
Glycolic acid is the preferred chemical peel agent in dark-skinned individuals.
Dark skin (Fitzpatrick type IV to VI) has a tendency for post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation (PIH) after procedures like lasers and chemical peel. Deep chemical peels cannot be used in dark-skinned patients. Even medium-depth peels need to be used with extreme caution.
Chemical peels are believed to promote desquamation which reduces corneocyte cohesion and keratinocyte plugging, so enabling the extrusion of inflammatory contents. Light chemical peels are used with the aim of helping to remove comedones as well as superficial scarring and hyperpigmentation.
Topic: Acne, Rosacea and Others - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
Identify the following condition. 79
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Acne rosacea
B) Acne vulgaris
C) Rhinophyma
D) Sebaceous gland neoplasm
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
Rhinophyma (also known as potato nose) is a slowly progressive condition due to hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the sebaceous glands of the tip of the nose.
It is often seen in cases of long-standing rosacea called phymatous rosacea. It is not a neoplasm.
It presents as a pink, lobulated mass over the nose with superficial vascular dilation. It mostly affects men past middle age. Patients seek advice because of the distorted appearance of the enlarged nose, or obstruction in breathing and vision.
Rhinophyma may be diagnosed clinically, but a skin biopsy can confirm the diagnosis. On histology, rhinophyma shows sebaceous gland hypertrophy, hyperplasia and fibrosis.
The most common indication for treatment is cosmetic. Ablation using CO2 laser or surgical resection of excess tissue with remodelling of nose can be performed.
Q1131.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Acne, Rosacea and Others - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
Which of the following is not associated with the given skin condition?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Photosensitivity
B) Blepharitis
C) Flushing
D) Comedones
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
The image shows acne rosacea. Comedones are pathognomonic features of acne vulgaris, not rosacea.
The absence of comedones helps in differentiating rosacea from acne vulgaris.
Option A: Photosensitivity is a feature of rosacea. It may be triggered/exacerbated by exposure to sunlight.
Option B: Ocular rosacea is associated with involvement of eye due to meibomian gland dysfunction, which causes gritty sensation in the eye, blepharitis, recurrent chalazion, and conjunctivitis.
Option C: Erythemato telangiectatic rosacea (ETT) is associated with facial vascular changes –
redness (flushing) and telangiectasia on central cheeks.
Q1132.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Acne, Rosacea and Others - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
Fordyce's spots mainly involves which of the following sites?
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A) Lips
B) Scalp
C) Neck
D) Trunk
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
Fordyce spots occur most commonly on the upper lip gt;buccal mucosa.
Q1133.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Acne, Rosacea and Others - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
Which of the following is a correct statement regarding the given condition?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Ectopic sebaceous glands
B) Antibiotics are the first line treatment
C) It is asymptomatic
D) Occur commonly on upper lip
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
The image shows pearly, penile papules. These are exclusively found in males. They consist of flesh-coloured, smooth papules most commonly on the coronal margin of the glans penis. They are benign and asymptomatic and treatment involves reassuring the patient.
Note: Pearly, penile papules are commonly mistaken for Fordyce spots (Tyson's glands). Fordyce spots are commonly seen on the shaft of the penis and are ectopic sebaceous glands. Image below depicts Fordyce spots on the penile shaft:
Q1134.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Acne, Rosacea and Others - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
81 During your rounds in the neonatal ward, you see a 2-week-old neonate with the following skin finding. It is a disorder of which of the following glands?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Sebaceous glands
B) Apocrine glands
C) Holocrine glands
D) Eccrine glands
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
The image shows clear, thinwalled, superficial vesicles 1–2 mm in diameter, without associated erythema, resembling drops of water in a newborn. It is suggestive of miliaria, a disorder
of eccrine sweat glands.
Q1135.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Acne, Rosacea and Others - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
Which is the incorrect statement regarding the condition shown in the image? 83
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Inframammary area and intermammary folds may be involved
B) TNF alpha inhibitors can be used in treatment
C) Obesity and smoking are associated with it
D) Surgery cannot be done for this condition.
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
The given image shows hidradenitis supurativa or inverse acne. Surgical excision is the best treatment that offers a cure.
Hidradenitis suppurativa is a chronic, inflammatory, recurrent, debilitating, follicular disease that usually presents after puberty.
There are painful, deepseated inflamed lesions in the apocrine glandbearing areas of the body, most commonly the axillary, inguinal, and anogenital regions.
This definition is based on the San Francisco modification of the Dessau criteria. The following three criteria must be met for the diagnosis to be made:
Typical lesions - deepseated, painful nodules or ‘blind boils’; abscesses, draining sinuses, bridged scars, and paired or multiheaded open pseudocomedones in secondary lesions.
Typical topography - axillae, groin, perineal and perianal region, buttocks and infra and intermammary folds.
Chronicity and recurrence of lesions.
More common in young women of ages 20-29 years. Obesity and smoking are the two main factors associated with hidradenitis suppurativa.
Treatment includes:
Antibiotics - tetracycline, clindamycin
Intralesional corticosteroids
Immunosuppressants
Acitretin
Anti-TNF alpha therapy
Surgery
Q1136.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
Which of the following structures demarcates the upper and lower hair follicles?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Sebaceous gland
B) Sweat gland
C) Arrector pili
D) Adamson's fringe
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
Arrector pili demarcates the upper and lower hair follicles. The portion above arrector pili constitutes the upper hair follicle while the portion below constitutes the lower hair follicle.
Option A: Sebaceous gland divides the upper segment into infundibulum and isthmus
Option B: Apocrine sweat glands open into the hair follicle above the opening of the sebaceous gland.
Option D: Adamson's fringe is an inverted V-shaped area in the upper keratogenous zone of the hair follicle and divides the lower segment into stem and bulb.
Q1137.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
Which of the following is not true about hair cycle?
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A) Anagen is responsible for final hair length
B) 50 of hair is in anagen at any point in time
C) Lower part of the follicle involutes during catagen
D) Kenogen is a state of latency
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
80-90 of hair follicles at a given time are in the anagen phase. The hair cycle has three phases:
Anagen:
It refers to the period of active hair growth. Anagen can continue for several years and the duration of this phase is responsible for determining the final length of the hair. Normally,
80–90 of hair follicles on the human scalp are in anagen at any one time. It can be identified by the presence of angulated roots.
Catagen:
At the end of anagen, epithelial cell division slows and stops, and the follicle enters an involutionary phase known as catagen. The proximal end of the hair shaft keratinizes to form a club-shaped structure and the lower part of the follicle involutes by apoptosis. It lasts for about
weeks.
Telogen:
It is the resting phase between catagen and the next anagen. Clubbing becomes more prominent. It lasts for about 3 months. Club hair is eventually shed through an active process called exogen.
In the human scalp, hair follicles may remain in a state of latency, also known as kenogen, for a prolonged period after the club hair is shed.
Q1138.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
Identify the incorrect statement regarding the types of hair.
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A) Melanin is absent in vellus hair
B) Vellus hair depth extends to the subcutis
C) The medulla is thicker in terminal hairs
D) Lanugo hair is unmedullated
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
Vellus hair extends to the dermis and not the subcutis.
Lanugo refers to the fine, soft, unmedullated and usually unpigmented hair of the prenatal period. It is normally shed in utero in the eighth to ninth months of gestation.
Postnatal hair is of two kinds: vellus and terminal.
Q1139.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A young man comes to you with hair loss as shown in the image given below. You prescribe finasteride to prevent his condition from worsening. Which isoform (s) of 5-alpha reductase does this drug inhibit? 96
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Type „
B) Type …
C) Types † and …
D) Types … and „
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
This man has male-pattern hair loss. Finasteride selectively inhibits type 2 5° reductase within the hair follicle. Hence, it is used in the treatment of male-pattern hair loss.
The 5° reductase enzyme converts testosterone to the more potent form of dihydrotestosterone (DHT). 5° Reductase exists in 3 isoforms. Type 1 and 3 are widely distributed in the skin and not involved in hair growth.
Type 2 is present in androgen-responsive tissues such as the dermal papillae of the hair follicle, prostate, epididymides, and seminal vesicles. Type 2 5° reductase also plays a key role in regulating androgen-dependent hair growth.
Hair growth in the following areas is androgen dependent:
Beard, chest, and extremity hair in males
Scalp, pubic, and axillary hair in both sexes
Male-pattern hair loss:
Male-pattern hair loss causes thinning of the vertex and an M-shaped receding hairline, as shown below. High levels of circulating androgens stimulate hair loss in certain sites by a process called miniaturization. Finasteride reverses this process.
Q1140.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
Which is the primary site of action of androgen in hair follicle?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) ‡air follicle epithelium
B) ˆermal papilla
C) ‰ulb
D) Infundibulum
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The dermal papilla is the primary target of the action of androgen in the hair. This is because the dermal papillae have two important features, namely
Androgen receptors which are present only in dermal papillae
Expression of 5° reductase type 2 which regulates androgen-dependent hair growth.
Androgens have the following effects on hair growth.
It increases the number of cells in the dermal papilla which causes hair follicle growth and results in pubertal hair growth.
It causes miniaturization of the follicle in other susceptible sites which leads to male pattern
hair loss.
Finasteride inhibits conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone in the dermal papillae. This prevents miniaturization and further development of alopecia.
Q1141.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A „… year old female patient with Š‹ŒS is worried that her hairline has shifted upwards exposing more of her forehead as shown below. Which of the following is incorrect about this type of hair loss and its treatment? 97
Image not available for this question yet.
A) DHT(dihydrotestosterone) is responsible for follicular regression
B) Arao-Perkins bodies are seen within the follicular stelae
C) Minoxidil has vasodilatory action
D) Finasteride is the first line treatment
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
This clinical scenario is suggestive of male pattern androgenetic alopecia. Finasteride is not the first line treatment in women.
Finasteride use in pregnancy can lead to teratogenic effects on male fetuses.
Androgenetic alopecia is a disorder characterized by a reduction of hair fiber production by follicles and miniaturization. It is of two types , male pattern and female pattern hair loss. Male pattern hair loss may occur in female amp; vice versa is also true. Male pattern hair loss causes frontal hairline recession and thinning of the vertex.
Miniaturization refers to a reduction in the size of follicles until it leaves behind a remnant called stelae or streamers. Elastic staining of the stelae shows Arao-Perkin's bodies.
DHT is a more potent form of testosterone. It is responsible for follicular regression and thus causes androgenic alopecia. Finasteride inhibits the enzyme that converts testosterone to DHT and hence is used for treatment.
Minoxidil is a potent vasodilator. It is used orally to treat severe hypertension. When used as a hair lotion, it prolongs the anagen phase and slows down or prevents hair loss. Drugs used to treat male pattern baldness:
Minoxidil lotion
5-alpha reductase antagonist - Finasteride
Drugs used to treat female pattern baldness:
Minoxidil lotion
Anti-androgens - spironolactone, flutamide, and cyproterone acetate
Q1142.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
You see a male patient with diffuse hair loss over the crown and frontal scalp with maintenance of the hairline. What is this pattern of hair loss?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Female pattern hair loss
B) Male pattern hair loss
C) Alopecia areata
D) Mixed pattern hair loss
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
Female pattern hair loss (FPHL) presents with diffuse thinning of hair over the midfrontal scalp with minimal or no bitemporal recession. Usually, vertex baldness is absent and frontal hairline is maintained.
Male pattern hair loss (MPHL) involves vertex baldness and frontal hairline recession. There is no entity called mixed pattern hair loss.
Currently, the Hamilton-Norwood classification system for MPHL and the Ludwig system for FPHL are most commonly used to describe patterns of hair loss.
Q1143.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A patient comes to you with hair loss as shown below. How will you classify its severity? 98
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A) Tanner staging
B) Hamilton-Norwood staging
C) Batts-Ludwig staging
D) Ludwig staging
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The above picture shows female pattern hair loss with frontoparietal thinning and maintenance of the frontal hairline. Female pattern hair loss staging is done using the Ludwig staging.
Option B: Hamilton Norwood staging is used for male pattern hair loss (MPHL).
Option C: Tanner staging is used to assess sexual maturity.
Option D: Batts-Ludwig staging is used for staging chronic hepatitis.
Q1144.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A 50-year-old lady who underwent chemotherapy for breast carcinoma 3 weeks ago now presents with diffuse hair loss as shown below. On examination, she has a depressed affect. Name the condition causing her hair loss.
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Alopecia areata
B) Telogen effluvium
C) Anagen effluvium
D) Trichotillomania
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
Chemotherapy causes hair loss known as anagen effluvium.
It is due to the disruption of the anagen or proliferating phase of the hair cycle. Hair shedding typically occurs within 1–3 weeks and it is complete within 1–2 months after the initiation of chemotherapy.
Most important drugs implicated in the order of decreasing frequency of association causing anagen effluvium:
Option B: Telogen effluvium is an acute-onset diffuse hair loss that occurs 2–3 months after a triggering event such as high fever, surgical trauma, sudden starvation or haemorrhage.
Option D: Trichotillomania is a behavioural disorder characterised by compulsive hair pulling which causes patchy hair loss. It shares some features with obsessive-compulsive disorder and may be associated with other psychiatric conditions.
Q1145.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A 25-year-old woman in the first trimester of pregnancy presents to your clinic with hair loss. She gives a history of typhoid fever 3 months ago. What is the pattern of hair loss seen in this patient?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Anagen effluvium
B) Androgenetic alopecia
C) Telogen effluvium
D) Telogen gravidarum
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
The pattern of hair loss in this clinical scenario is telogen effluvium. It is an acute-onset scalp hair loss that occurs 2–3 months after a triggering event such as high fever, surgical trauma, sudden starvation, or hemorrhage.
It refers to an increase in the shedding of telogen club hairs due to premature termination of the anagen (proliferative) phase of the hair cycle following a period of stress.
Chronic diffuse telogen hair loss refers to telogen hair shedding persisting gt; 6 months. Causes of chronic diffuse telogen hair loss are:
Thyroid disorders (Both hyper- and hypothyroidism)
Severe iron deficiency anemia, acrodermatitis enteropathica, and malnutrition.
Telogen gravidarum refers to telogen hair loss seen 2–3 months after childbirth. The circulating placental estrogen during pregnancy prolongs anagen phase. After delivery, the estrogen withdrawal pushes all the hair simultaneously into catagen and then telogen phase.
Q1146.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
While examining a patient with hair loss, you notice several thin, broken hairs that are thinner towards the scalp and easily pulled out. What is the diagnosis in this patient?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Alopecia areata
B) Telogen effluvium
C) Netherton syndrome
D) Cicatricial alopecia
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
This patient has alopecia areata. The characteristic finding described in this vignette is called exclamation mark hair.
Alopecia areata is a chronic inflammatory disease that causes non-scarring patches of hair loss. It is a T-cell mediated inflammatory disease that occurs in genetically predisposed patients.
The lesions of alopecia areata are characterized by a smooth circumscribed patch of alopecia. Exclamation mark hair refers to short extractable broken hairs which are thinner towards the base, as shown in the image below.
Q1147.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
Which of the following statements about alopecia areata is true?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Spontaneous remission is seen in 20 of patients
B) Alopecia universalis denotes loss of all scalp hair
C) Ophiasis means loss of hair along the back of scalp
D) Alopecia totalis denotes loss of all body hair
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
Hair loss over the back of the head is called ophiasis because it creeps like a snake towards both ears.
Alopecia areata causes non-scarring hair loss in well-circumscribed patches. It peaks between 20-40 years but can occur at any age.
In case of limited patchy hair loss present for lt; 1 year, spontaneous remission is seen in 80 of patients. Sometimes the patches can coalesce to cause complete loss of hair.
Alopecia totalis means loss of all scalp hair and alopecia universalis means loss of all body hair.
Q1148.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
100 A 10-year old boy presents with the following type of hair loss. Which of the following is the most likely expected nail finding?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Fine stippled pitting of nail
B) Thinning of nail with pterygium
C) V-shaped nicks on the distal edge
D) Greenish discoloration with onychonychia
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The given scenario suggests alopecia areata in which geometric fine-stippled pitting of the nail is the most likely expected finding, as shown below.
Option B: Thinning of the nail with dorsal pterygium is seen in lichen planus.
Option C: V-shaped nicks on the distal edge of the nail are a feature of Darier disease. Option D: Green nails are associated with Pseudomonas infection.
Q1149.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
You are treating a college student for acne. While examining him, you observe the following finding. What initial treatment will you recommend for this finding? 101
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Intralesional steroids
B) Contact immunotherapy
C) Oral steroids
D) Cyclosporine
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
This patient has limited alopecia areata as seen by the well-circumscribed patch of hair loss. Intra-lesional steroids are the first-line treatment.
The following treatment options are used in alopecia areata.
First line: Intra-lesional corticosteroids - Depot steroid (hydrocortisone acetate 25 mg/mL or triamcinolone acetonide 5–10 mg/mL)
Second line: Oral corticosteroids are used if initial treatment fails.
Third line: Contact immunotherapy. It works by inducing mild contact dermatitis on the scalp by applying an allergen.
Q1150.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
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Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A woman brings her 46-year-old sister to the dermatology OPD. Over the last 4 weeks, following the death of her husband, her head has become full of thin white hair which was previously black. She has also lost about 7kgs. What is the cause of this finding?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Hyperthyroidism
B) Alopecia areata
C) Telogen effluvium
D) Psychological stress
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
The finding described is called going white overnight and is characteristic of alopecia areata.
Alopecia areata preferentially targets pigmented hair. Older patients with grey hair have a mixture of white and pigmented hair. If the disease progresses rapidly, only pigmented hair will be affected, sparing the white hair. This leads to a dramatic change in overall hair color that is called going white overnight.
The following image shows patches of hair loss with sparing of white hair.
Option A: Hyperthyroidism can cause weight loss and diffuse hair thinning but a change in hair color is not a feature.
Options C and D: Telogen effluvium and psychological stress (which also causes telogen effluvium) lead to diffuse hair loss that affects all hair equally, not just pigmented hairs. So, overall hair color will not be affected.