Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
Which of the following conditions cause non-cicatricial alopecia?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) 1, 3, 4
B) 2, 4, 5
C) 3, 5
D)
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
Alopecia areata and secondary syphilis cause non-scarring (non-cicatricial) alopecia. Common conditions causing scarring (cicatricial) alopecia include:
Discoid lupus erythematosus (DLE)
Pseudopelade of Brocq
Scleroderma
Favus
Kerion
Lichen planopilaris
Folliculitis decalvans.
Q1152.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A patient presented with hair loss and itching of the scalp along with mild discharge. Which of the following is useful for diagnosis? 102
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Tzanck smear
B) Gram stain
C) Slit skin smear
D) KOH mount
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
The patient has a history of itching and mild discharge and examination shows a well-demarcated patch of alopecia, with scaling and broken hair shafts. This is characteristic of tinea capitis.
Though the diagnosis is clinical, a KOH mount is used for confirmation.
Scrapings from the edge of a lesion are transferred to a slide, to which KOH is added. It is then examined under the microscope for the presence of hyphae, as shown below.
Tinea capitis is a dermatophyte infection primarily occurring in children. Clinical features of tinea capitis are patchy hair loss, scaling, tender lymphadenopathy, and in severe cases, there might be pustules and crusting of the affected area along with sinus formation.
The clinical variants of tinea capitis are:
Endothrix - a non-inflammatory type in which multiple black dots are present within the areas of alopecia. It is most commonly caused by T. tonsurans and T. violaceum.
Ectothrix - a mild inflammatory type in which single or multiple scaly patches with hair loss are seen. Microsporum audouinii, M.canis, M.equinnum, and M.ferrugineum cause ectothrix infection.
Kerion - a severe inflammatory type that presents with an inflammatory mass with thick crusting and matting of hair with pus and sinus formation. It is commonly caused by T.
verrucosum and T. mentagrophytes.
Favus - is characterized by the presence of yellowish, cupshaped crusts known as scutula that develop around hair follicles. It is caused by T. schoenleinii
Treatment:
Terbinafine: lt;10 Kg- 62.5 mg; 10-20 kg - 125 mg; gt;20 kg- 250 mg, all given daily for 4
weeks.
Itraconazole: 2-4 mg/kg/day for 4-6 weeks.
Q1153.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A dermatologist is consulted regarding a 20-year old patient who underwent surgery for intestinal obstruction last week. Which of the following is the cause of hair loss in this patient?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Alopecia areata
B) Pseudopelade of Brocq
C) Telogen effluvium
D) Trichotillomania
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
The given image is characteristic of trichotillomania. It is an obsessive-compulsive disorder characterized by compulsive hair pulling. Ingestion of the plucked hair is called trichophagia. Rarely, the resulting hairball called trichobezoar can cause intestinal obstruction.
The characteristic features are,
Varying lengths of hair and absence of complete hair loss in the patch
Orentreich or Friar Tuck or Tonsure sign: Loss of central area (easier to pull) and sparing of margins of the scalp.
Broken hair shafts
No scarring.
Histopathological examination shows,
No inflammation
Peribulbar, intraepithelial and perifollicular hemorrhages
Intrafollicular pigment casts.
Trichotillosis is the newer term as it is not a 'mania'. It shares some features with the OCD spectrum of disorders. It is usually associated with other psychiatric conditions.
Option A: Alopecia areata shows well-circumscribed patches of complete hair loss with sparing of white hair, as shown below.
Option B: Pseudopelade of Brocq is a scarring alopecia that produces small round or oval patches of smooth alopecia, described as footprints in the snow.
Option C: Telogen effluvium can occur 2-3 months after systemic stress such as surgery or illness, but it causes diffuse hair loss, not patchy as in this patient.
Q1154.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
Which of the following conditions causes bamboo hair as seen in the image below?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Trichorrhexis nodosa
B) Netherton syndrome
C) Kinky hair syndrome
D) Uncombable hair syndrome
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
Bamboo hair is seen in Netherton syndrome.
It presents with atopy, recurrent skin infection, and an increased risk of skin cancer. It has two characteristic features, namely:
Ichthyosis linearis circumflexa - a rare form of ichthyosis with scaling and plaques.
Trichorrhexis invaginata or bamboo hair - characterized by invagination of the distal hair shaft into the proximal portion. It is also called golf-tee or ball and socket appearance as seen below.
Option A: Trichorrhexis nodosa is associated with trauma to the hair shaft and arginosuccinic aciduria. It causes node formation and fractures which results in the thrust paintbrush appearance seen below as if two paintbrushes are rubbing against each other.
Option C: Menkes kinky hair syndrome is an X-linked recessive disorder of copper metabolism. It is associated with pili torti or twisted hairs, seen in the first image, and monilethrix or beaded hair, seen in the second image.
Option D: Uncombable hair syndrome produces a characteristic triangular cross-section of hair and longitudinal groove along one side which contributes to its hair stiffness.
Q1155.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
Identify the structure marked in the following image. 104
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Cuticle
B) Lunula
C) Hyponychium
D) Nail matrix
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The marked structure is the lunula, which is the whitish half-moon-shaped structure between the free margin of proximal nail fold and nail bed.
The various parts of the nail include:
Nail plate: Durable, chemically resistant, partially translucent keratinized structure which grows throughout life.
Proximal nail fold: Cutaneous folded structure providing a visible proximal border of nail fold, continuous with the cuticle.
Lateral nail fold: Cutaneous folded structures providing the lateral borders to the nail.
Lunula: Convex margin of intermediate nail matrix seen through the nail.
Eponychium: Small band of epithelium extending from the proximal nail fold and adhering to the dorsal aspect of the nail plate.
Cuticle: Thin layer of dead tissue which forms a seal between the nail plate and eponychium to prevent pathogens from infecting the matrix area.
Nail Bed: The vascular bed upon which nail rests extending from the lunula to the hyponychium.
Hyponychium: Cutaneous margin underlying free nail, bordered distally by the distal groove.
Q1156.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
In a patient with the given nail finding, you would suspect all of the following diagnoses except
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Iron deficiency anaemia
B) Hemochromatosis
C) Raynaud's disease
D) Megaloblastic anaemia
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
Koilonychia is not seen in megaloblastic anemia. It refers to a flattening or concavity of the dorsal part of the nail producing a spoon shape. It can occur in the following conditions
Iron-deficiency anemia
Hemochromatosis
Raynaud’s disease.
Psoriasis and dermatophytes also can mimic koilonychia
The following image also shows koilonychia or spoon-shaped nails:
Q1157.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
On examining a patient with a history of a long-standing rash, you notice that one of her nails has the following appearance. What condition does this patient suffer from?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Lichen planus
B) Scleroderma
C) Psoriaisis
D) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
The given image shows dorsal pterygium, which is a characteristic nail finding in lichen planus.
It is a wing-shaped deformity of the dorsal nail due to a central fibrotic band that divides the nail into two parts in the proximal area.
Ventral pterygium or pterygium inversum unguis refers to the adherence of the distal portion of the nail bed to the ventral surface of the nail plate. It can be idiopathic or due to trauma, systemic sclerosis, Raynaud phenomenon. It makes the trimming of nails very painful.
Q1158.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A medical student is visiting her grandmother, who is recovering from heart surgery. She decides to cheer her up by painting her nails. She notices that her nails look odd as seen below. What is this finding called? 106
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Beau’s lines
B) Mees lines
C) Lindsay nail
D) Trachyonychia
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
This image shows Beau’s lines which are generalized transverse grooves on the nail which may be full or partial thickness. They usually occur a few weeks after a precipitating systemic event like MI, measles, mumps, or pneumonia.
Isolated transverse grooves in individual nails may occur due to trauma, inflammation, or neurological events.
Option B: Mees or Aldrich–Mees lines or Leukonychia striata are white lines that occur as a 1–2 mm wide transverse band is in the arcuate form of the lunula. They are associated with arsenic and lithium poisoning as well as renal failure.
Option C: Lindsay nails or half-and-half nails are a rare finding where the proximal portion of the nail is white and the distal half is pink, with a sharp line of demarcation between the two halves. They are specific for renal failure.
Option D: Trachyonychia is roughening of nails observed in alopecia areata.
Q1159.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A 45-year old woman presents to the OPD with complaints of tiredness. On general examination, she is found to have facial puffiness, pedal edema and her nails appear as follows. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Congestive heart failure
B) Renal failure
C) Hypoalbuminemia
D) Iron-deficiency anemia
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
The given image shows paired white bands parallel to the lunula called Muehrcke’s lines, which are a specific finding of hypoalbuminemia. They are reversible with albumin infusion.
Option A: In congestive heart failure, leukonychia or Terry’s nails are seen. Option B: In renal failure, half and half nails are seen.
Option D: In iron-deficiency anemia, koilonychia is seen.
Q1160.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A 30-year-old man with a history of chronic rhinosinusitis is referred to the dermatology OPD for abnormal-looking nails as shown in the image. Which of the following is not a feature of this patient’s condition?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Pleural effusion
B) Malignant neoplasms
C) Bronchiectasis
D) Pitting edema
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
The condition shown in the above image is yellow nail syndrome. It is associated with lymphedema, which is non-pitting.
It is a rare disease characterized by the classical triad of:
Yellow dystrophic nails, due to thickening of nails
Primary lymphedema (due to underdevelopment of the lymphatic vessels)
Pleural effusion
Other common manifestations include chronic rhinosinusitis, chronic bronchitis, bronchiectasis, increased risk of malignancy.
It is also associated with D-penicillamine therapy and nephrotic syndrome. Hypothyroidism and AIDS may show yellow nails, but it is unclear whether this is due to yellow nail syndrome or simply due to retarded growth.
Q1161.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A woman presents with severe pulsating pain in her right index finger, which increases on exposure to cold. The following examination findings are seen before and after the removal of the nail plate. What is the diagnosis? 108
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Subungual hematoma
B) Herpetic whitlow
C) Subungual exostosis
D) Glomus tumor
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
The woman is suffering from a glomus tumor. It is a benign tumor of the myoarterial glomus.
It is seen at 30-40 years of age in adults. Multiple tumors are more common in children than adults. It can occur in the hands, head, neck, penis or even internal organs.
It presents as a pink or purple nodule. Pain is the predominant feature, especially in nail tumors. It is provoked by temperature change and direct pressure. On examination, a bluish-red hue is seen in the following image. Surgical excision is curative as recurrence is rare.
Option A: Subungual hematoma is caused by acute heavy injury or chronic repeated trauma. It causes brownish-grey discoloration of the nail, as seen below.
Option B: Herpetic whitlow is an HSV infection that occurs following minor trauma. It affects the nail and periungual region, as seen below.
Option C: Subungual exostosis is a benign tumor that causes reddish onycholysis of the nail with variable pain, as seen below.
Q1162.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
Which of the following statements is false about nail-patella syndrome?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) It is an autosomal recessive condition.
B) Nail dysplasia occurs with triangular lunula.
C) Patella is small, irregular, or absent.
D) Iliac horns are present.
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
Nail patella syndrome (NPS) is an autosomal dominant condition causing nail and bone dysplasia. It is characterized by the following:
Triangular lunula instead of a crescent-shaped lunula
Patella is small, irregular, or absent
Iliac horns are bony protrusions from the iliac bone laterally and posteriorly.
The following image shows a dysplastic nail with triangular lunula.
The following AP radiograph shows a hypoplastic patella in a patient with NPS.
The following AP radiograph of the right iliac crest shows a bony exostosis or posterior iliac horn
(white arrow), which is pathognomonic of NPS.
Q1163.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
An unkempt and restless woman is brought to the ER after a road accident. She claims that ‘aliens are trying to kill her’. She has a fractured wrist and the following findings are noted in her nails. What condition is this patient suffering from? 109
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Darier's disease
B) Hailey Hailey disease
C) Lichen Planus
D) Psoriasis
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The shown nail findings are characteristic of Darier's disease. They include:
Longitudinal erythronychia
Longitudinal leukonychia
Distal Vshaped nicks.
Darier's disease or keratosis follicularis or dyskeratosis follicularis, is an autosomal dominant condition arising from mutations in the ATP2A2 gene which affects the SERCA2 calcium pump. It presents with greasy hyperkeratotic papules and plaques in seborrheic regions. Neuropsychiatric
features such as depression, psychosis and mental retardation may also occur. Option B: Hailey-Hailey disease presents with longitudinal leukonychia.
Option C: Lichen planus presents with dorsal pterygium.
Option D: Psoriasis causes the pathognomonic oil drop sign. It is a yellow-red discoloration in the nail bed resembling a drop of oil.
Q1164.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A nursing student goes to the OPD for review of acne. An oral antibiotic had been added to her regimen 3 weeks back. She asks the dermatologist about the strange appearance of her nails as shown below, though she has no pain. What is the cause?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Klebsiella infection
B) Minocycline intake
C) Onychomycosis
D) Pseudomonas infection
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
This patient has green nails or chloronychia, a painless condition caused by infection with Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Pseudomonas may colonize the nail following onycholysis (painless separation of the nail from bed) which occurs due to frequent wetting or wearing of gloves causing maceration and minor trauma due to long nails or manicures. The green color is due to pyoverdin and pyocyanin, produced by P. aeruginosa.
Though it is harmless for the patients, it may spread to other immunosuppressed individuals. Hence, these patients should not work in hospitals, kitchens and other places where they are likely to spread the infection to others.
Treatment is with fingertip bath in white vinegar, bleach, or topical gentamicin. Option A: Klebsiella colonization can cause greyish discoloration of nails.
Option B: Minocycline is one of the most common antibiotics used by dermatologists due to its anti-inflammatory properties. It causes a bluish-grey discoloration of nails.
Option C: Onychomycosis causes whitish-yellow discoloration and is painful in later stages.
Q1165.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Disorders of Hair and Nails - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
What is the probable diagnosis of this condition affecting hair?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Trichorhexis nodosa
B) Trichorexis invaginata
C) Trichothiodystrophy
D) Monilethrix
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
The given clinical image of hair seen under polarising microscopy reveals tiger tail banding
(alternating light and dark bands) characteristic of trichothiodystrophy.
Trichothiodystrophy is an autosomal recessive condition causing defective DNA repair. It causes brittle sulfur-deficient hair, photosensitivity, ichthyosis and systemic involvement. Unlike xeroderma pigmentosum (a similar condition with defective DNA repair), there is no risk of skin cancer.
Option A: Trichorrhexis nodosa is associated with node formation and fractures. The classic appearance, shown in the image below, is known as thrust paintbrush appearance as if two paintbrushes are rubbing against each other. It is associated with trauma to the hair shaft and arginosuccinic aciduria.
B- Trichorrhexis invaginata or bamboo hair is characterized by invagination of the distal hair shaft into the proximal portion. It is seen in Netherton's syndrome. It is also called golf-tee or ball and socket appearance as seen below.
Option D: Monilethrix, seen in the image below, is characterized by beaded hair and is fragile at the constricted sites. It occurs as an isolated condition or can occur in Menkes disease.
Q1166.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
Which of the following is not responsible for the color of the human skin?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Amount of melanin inside melanocytes
B) Number of melanocytes
C) Number and size of melanosomes
D) Degree of transfer of melanin into keratinocytes
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The color of the human skin does not depend on the number of melanocytes. The color of the skin depends on the following:
Amount of melanin inside melanocytes
Number and size of melanosomes
Degree of transfer of melanin into keratinocytes
Q1167.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
What is the ratio of the epidermal melanin unit?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) 28 keratinocytes : 1 melanocyte
B) 36 keratinocytes : 2 melanocytes
C) 28 keratinocytes : 2 melanocytes
D) 36 keratinocytes : 1 melanocyte
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
The ratio of the epidermal melanin unit is 36 keratinocytes : 1 melanocyte.
The color of the skin is due to the pigment melanin synthesized by melanocytes. Melanocytes are dendritic cells derived from neural crest cells and are present in the epidermis' stratum basale.
Each melanocyte synthesizes melanin and packs it in cell organelles to form melanosomes. These melanosomes are transferred through dendritic processes to 36 keratinocytes forming the ‘epidermal melanin’ unit.
Q1168.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
Which of the following statements is not true regarding piebaldism?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Autosomal dominant inheritance
B) Well-defined hypopigmented macules are seen
C) White forelock is rare
D) Small spots of hyperpigmentation can also be seen
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
White forelock is quite common in piebaldism.
Piebaldism is an autosomal dominant benign condition. Mutations are in the cKIT gene. Well-defined irregular hypopigmented macules with an absence of melanocytes are seen.
Leucotrichia is associated with the depigmented macules. Small spots of hyperpigmentation are also seen within hypopigmented patches or on normal skin. It is often associated with a V-shaped leucoderma on the mid-forehead.
Epidermal cell or skin grafting is the treatment.
Piebaldism can be distinguished from vitiligo because of the neonatal presence of white patches. The images below show patients with piebaldism.
Q1169.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A child with sensorineural hearing loss is brought to the OPD with the following skin findings. What is the most likely diagnosis? 141
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Waardenburg syndrome
B) Hermansky-Pudlak syndrome
C) Chediak-Higashi syndrome
D) Oculocutaneous albinism
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The child has skin findings suggestive of piebaldism, which along with sensorineural deafness point towards Waardenburg syndrome.
It is an autosomal dominant disorder that is characterized by:
White forelock
Hypopigmented patches
Heterochromia iridis
Sensorineural deafness.
The image below shows clinical associations of the Waardenburg syndrome.
Option B: Hermansky–Pudlak syndrome is a rare type of oculocutaneous albinism associated with a hemorrhagic diathesis. The disease results from abnormal biogenesis of lysosome-related organelles with impaired melanosome maturation and absent dense bodies in thrombocytes.
Option C: Chédiak–Higashi syndrome is a rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by hypopigmentation of the skin and eye, immunodeficiency, and possibly neurological symptoms.
Option D: Oculocutaneous albinism (OCA) is a rare autosomal recessive genetic disorder characterized by generalized depigmentation of the skin, hair, and eye caused by a deficiency in melanin biosynthesis.
Q1170.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A patient presented with hypopigmentation of the skin and iris. Peripheral smear done is shown below. Which of the following is false regarding this condition?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Autosomal recessive
B) Neurological abnormalities
C) Pyogenic infections
D) Gain-of-function mutation of LYST
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
The peripheral smear shows giant inclusions in polymorphonuclear neutrophils, which along with oculocutaneous albinism is suggestive of Chediak-Higashi syndrome.
It is an autosomal recessive disorder due to loss-of-function mutation of the LYST gene encoding a protein known as lysosomal trafficking regulator.
Clinical features occur due to defective transport of cell products. These include:
Significant pyogenic infections
Albinism (due to abnormalities of melanocytes)
Neurological abnormalities
Progressive intellectual decline
Cranial nerve palsies
Decreased deep tendon reflexes
Tremor
Abnormal gait (nerve cell dysfunction),
Bleeding (due to platelet dysfunction).
Peroxidasepositive giant inclusions are seen in leukocytes. The only curative treatment available for Chédiak–Higashi syndrome is bone transplantation.
Q1171.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
The pediatrician refers the child shown below for dermatology and ophthalmology opinions. Oculocutaneous albinism is suspected. Which of the following is false regarding this condition? [Image unavailable]
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Tryptophan deficiency
B) Photophobia present
C) Autosomal recessive
D) Melanocytes are normal
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
Oculocutaneous albinism is not due to tryptophan deficiency but is due to tyrosinase deficiency.
It is a rare autosomal recessive disorder characterized by generalized depigmentation of the skin, hair, and eye. Ophthalmological anomalies are also noted. It is caused by a deficiency in melanin biosynthesis, but melanocytes are normally present and distributed.
It is caused by mutations in TYR, encoding the tyrosinase gene.
Significant photophobia may be present. Iris translucency is demonstrable by slit-lamp examination.
Sun protection is mandatory to avoid skin sunburns and skin cancers with a special emphasis on patients living in high UV risk environments. Early referral to an ophthalmologist is mandatory. Dark glasses are important to protect the eyes and prevent photophobia.
Q1172.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
What is the pathological basis for the given skin finding?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Lack of melanin
B) Loss of melanocytes
C) Loss of melanosomes
D) Melanocyte senescence
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The image is suggestive of vitiligo. The pathological basis of vitiligo is the loss of melanocytes.
Vitiligo is a common form of localized depigmentation. It is characterized by milkywhite sharply demarcated macules. It is an acquired condition resulting from the autoimmune destruction of dopa-positive melanocytes in the basal layer of the epidermis.
Vitiligo can begin at any age but in the majority of cases becomes apparent in the third
decade. The prevalence is most probably the same in both sexes or a slight female preponderance.
Electron microscopy studies confirm the loss of melanocytes. Wood's lamp examination shows milky-white fluorescence.
Koebner phenomenon defined as the development of lesions at sites of trauma to uninvolved skin of patients with cutaneous diseases is a wellknown phenomenon in vitiligo.
Q1173.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A lady comes to the clinic with the given findings. Which disease has the strongest association with this condition?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Thyroid disorders
B) Pernicious anemia
C) Diabetes type 1
D) Addison’s disease
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
The patient has vitiligo. Amongst autoimmune diseases, the strongest association of vitiligo is with thyroid disorders (hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism).
Other disorders associated with vitiligo are:
Pernicious anemia
Addison's disease
Diabetes type I
Myasthenia gravis
Alopecia areata
Uveitis
Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis
Autoimmune polyendocrine syndromes (types I and II)
Q1174.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
A 22-year-old college student presented to the OPD with hypopigmentation on his face. The lesions have been stable for the past year. Wood's lamp examination showed milky white fluorescence. Which of the following would you not offer as a treatment option for his condition?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Topical steroids
B) Tacrolimus
C) Cyclosporine
D) Surgical grafting
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
The clinical scenario suggests a diagnosis of vitiligo. Cyclosporine is not a treatment option for vitiligo. There is not enough evidence of its benefits and more potential side effects.
Treatment options for vitiligo:
Topical agents:
Topical corticosteroids
Calcineurin inhibitors - tacrolimus
Vitamin D analogs - calcitriol
Systemic agents:
Corticosteroids
Azathioprine
Phototherapy:
PUVA
PUVASol - sunlight
NBUVB - narrow band UV B radiation at 311nm
Targeted phototherapy using excimer laser 308nm
Surgical treatment:
Ultrathin partial thickness skin grafting
Non-cultured autologous melanocytic transfer
Cultured autologous melanocytic transfer
Note: Surgical treatment is usually reserved for patients with stable (a period of disease inactivity ranging from six months to two years) vitiligo who failed to respond to non-surgical treatment.
Q1175.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Disorders of Skin Pigmentation - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
144 Which of the following is not a mechanism of action of the therapeutic modality shown below?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Crosslinking of DNA by psoralen
B) Langerhans cell depletion
C) Activation of T lymphocytes
D) Stimulation of melanogenesis
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
The image shows photochemotherapy (PUVA therapy), used for the treatment of vitiligo. It causes suppression of T lymphocyte action.
The UVA spectrum is 320-400 nm. When it is used in combination with an oral or
topical psoralen photosensitizer, it is known as PUVA therapy. The most frequently-used oral
psoralens are 8methoxy psoralen (8MOP) and 5methoxy psoralen (5MOP).
The mechanisms of action of PUVA:
Inhibition of DNA replication - DNA crosslinking by psoralen photoadducts
Langerhans cell depletion
Immunosuppressive effects on Tlymphocyte function
Stimulation of melanogenesis
Migration and the restoration of Th1›/regulatory T-cell imbalance in psoriasis
Indications of PUVA therapy:
Psoriasis
Atopic eczema
Vitiligo
Polymorphic light eruption
Cutaneous T cell lymphoma
The UVB part of the spectrum is 280-320 nm. Lamps utilizing the 311-313 nm frequencies are called narrowband UV (NBUVB). UVB phototherapy has antiinflammatory, immunosuppressive, and cytotoxic properties.
Vitiligo may respond both to NBUVB and PUVA. NBUVB is more effective than PUVA but the response is variable and treatment usually has to be prolonged, often over many months to a year or more.