While examining a patient with pemphigus vulgaris, you notice that applying pressure on top of the bulla causes it to extend to the adjacent unblistered skin. What is this sign known as?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Asboe-Hansen sign
B) Nikolsky sign
C) Dimple sign
D) Bulla spread sign
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The extension of a blister to adjacent unblistered skin when pressure is applied over the top of the bulla is known as the Asboe-Hansen sign.
Option B: Nikolsky sign refers to easy peeling of skin on applying tangential pressure over a bony prominence. It is classically seen in pemphigus vulgaris, pemphigus foliaceus, and staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome.
Option C: Dimple sign refers to the dimpled appearance of a dermatofibroma on squeezing the adjacent skin.
Option D: The traditional bulla spread or Lutz sign involves applying lateral pressure to the blister, which causes the spread of the bulla.
A 4-year-old girl was brought by her parents with itchy blisters on her face and buttocks that developed quite suddenly. History revealed an episode of streptococcal pharyngitis 2 weeks ago that was treated with penicillin. Direct immunofluorescence microscopy revealed IgA deposition, as shown in the image below. What is the most likely diagnosis? 283
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Hailey-Hailey disease
B) Chronic bullous disease of childhood
C) Epidermolysis bullosa dystrophicans
D) Epidermolysis bullosa simplex
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The given image showing linear deposition of IgA at the dermo-epidermal junction is diagnostic for linear IgA disease or chronic bullous disorder of childhood or IgA pemphigoid.
It is the most common immunobullous disease in infants and children. It may occur lt;5 years or at 60-65 years of age. It occurs in genetically susceptible individuals and can be triggered by drugs like vancomycin, penicillin, and NSAIDs. The main target antigen is BP180 or BPAg2.
The classic triad of clinical features is:
Tense blisters
Vesicles
Annular erythema
Onset is abrupt in children with involvement of the perioral and perianal regions. In adults, the extensor areas and trunk are affected. The blisters are arranged in an annular pattern. This is called the crown of jewels or string of pearls appearance, as shown below.
A child presents to OPD with tense bullae over the torso. Biopsy of the lesion showed a subepidermal level of blistering and neutrophil infiltration. What is the drug of choice?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Rituximab
B) Dapsone
C) Cyclosporine
D) Azathioprine
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
This clinical scenario with tense blisters showing subepidermal separation and neutrophilic infiltration at the basement membrane points towards a diagnosis of IgA pemphigoid or linear IgA disease or chronic bullous disease of childhood. The drug of choice is dapsone. It is bacteriostatic against M. leprae.
It also has an anti-inflammatory action by decreasing the action of neutrophil enzymes. Hence, it is useful in the treatment of IgA pemphigoid, linear IgA disease and chronic bullous disease of childhood.
In patients with which of the following conditions would you perform direct immunofluorescence microscopy for diagnosis?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Epidermolysis bullosa simplex
B) Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita
C) Hailey-Hailey disease
D) Darier's disease
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
Direct immunofluorescence microscopy is used in the diagnosis of epidermolysis bullosa acquisita. It is positive due to the presence of antibodies against type VII collagen.
Direct immunofluorescence microscopy is negative in blistering conditions with congenital protein defects:
Direct immunofluorescence microscopy of a patient's skin biopsy reveals intraepidermal intercellular deposition of IgA. What is the diagnosis?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Linear IgA disease
B) Pemphigoid gestationis
C) Bullous pemphigoid
D) IgA pemphigus
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
Intraepidermal intercellular deposition of IgA on immunofluorescence is seen in IgA pemphigus.
It is characterized by IgA antibodies against desmosomal components. As in pemphigus vulgaris, the pattern of immunofluorescence is intraepidermal and intercellular.
Direct immunofluorescence staining in various immunobullous conditions is shown in the following table.
A 40-year-old man presented with blisters on his upper chest and back and mucosal lesions as shown. On examination, the bullae were flaccid and filled with clear fluid. What is the diagnosis? 285
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Pemphigus vulgaris
B) Bullous pemphigoid
C) Pemphigus foliaceus
D) Epidermolysis bullosa acquisita
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
Flaccid bullae on the skin and oral erosions suggest a diagnosis of mucocutaneous pemphigus vulgaris.
Oral erosions usually precede skin manifestations. The skin lesions are flaccid blisters with clear fluid on an erythematous base, that rupture to produce painful erosions. These are distributed over the face, scalp, upper chest, back, and neck.
Options B and D: Bullous pemphigoid and epidermolysis bullosa acquisita show subepidermal involvement with tense blisters.
Option C: Pemphigus foliaceus causes superficial blisters with no mucosal involvement.
In pemphigus vulgaris, autoantibodies are directed towards desmoglein 3. Desmoglein 1 and desmocollins can also be involved. Desmoglein 3 is present predominantly in the mucosal epithelium. Thus, antibodies against it lead to severe mucosal blistering. Desmoglein 3 is also involved in pemphigus vegetans.
Patients with pemphigus foliaceus, who have anti-desmoglein 1 antibodies alone, exhibit skin blistering without mucosal involvement.
Epidermolysis bullosa simplex is associated with congenital defects in K5/K14 antigens. Junctional epidermolysis bullosa is associated with congenital defects in laminin.
A 40-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of oral ulcers, large areas of denuded skin, and flaccid blisters. What is the first-line investigation for this condition?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Direct immunofluorescence microscopy
B) Indirect immunofluorescence microscopy
C) Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay
D) Tzanck smear from the floor of blister
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
This clinical picture is suggestive of pemphigus vulgaris. The first-line investigation is Tzanck smear.
It allows us to visualize the histology by collecting material from the floor of a fresh blister that is stained with Giemsa or any Romanowsky stain. Tzanck cells are seen on microscopy.
Direct immunofluorescence microscopy (DIF) is the most accurate test.
A patient presents with flaccid bullous lesions involving the oral cavity and the skin. He has lesions as shown below. Acantholytic cells are seen on Tzanck smear. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Pemphigus foliaceus
B) Pemphigus vulgaris
C) Dermatitis herpetiformis
D) Bullous pemphigoid
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
Flaccid lesions, mucosal involvement, and the presence of acantholytic cells are suggestive of pemphigus vulgaris.
Option A: There is no mucosal involvement in pemphigus foliaceus.
Option C: Dermatitis herpetiformis presents with multiple small vesicles and no acantholysis. Option D: Bullous pemphigoid presents with tense bullae and no acantholysis.
A patient with a bullous disorder is referred to the dermatology OPD for further investigations. Direct immunofluorescence microscopy is performed. What is the diagnosis? 287
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Bullous pemphigoid
B) Pemphigus vulgaris
C) Epidermolysis bullosa aquisita
D) Dermatitis herpetiformis
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
The given image shows a characteristic fish-net appearance on direct immunofluorescence, which is diagnostic of pemphigus vulgaris.
This pattern is due to intraepidermal intercellular deposition of IgG and C3.
Direct or indirect immunofluorescence cannot be used to differentiate between pemphigus vulgaris and pemphigus foliaceus, as they present similarly.
Options A and C: Bullous pemphigoid, cicatricial pemphigoid, and epidermolysis bullosa acquisita present linear or shoreline pattern is seen in due to IgG and C3 deposits along the
dermo-epidermal junctions, as seen in the following image.
Option D: Dermatitis herpetiformis presents with focal granular deposits of IgA at papillary tips, as seen below.
What is the most accurate diagnostic test for Pemphigus vulgaris?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Indirect immunofluorescence testing
B) Direct immunofluorescence testing
C) Histopathology
D) Enzyme Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA)
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
Direct immunofluorescence test is the most accurate test to diagnose Pemphigus Vulgaris.
Direct Immunofluorescence uses anti-IgG antibodies which detects the anti-desmoglein IgG antibodies deposited on the Desmosomes. These desmosomes are present at cell junctions; this leads to the fishnet pattern.
A skin biopsy from a patient with an immunobullous condition is shown below. What is the diagnosis? 288
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Pemphigus vulgaris
B) Pemphigus foliaceus
C) Bullous pemphigoid
D) Epidermolysis bullosa
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
The given image shows a row of tombstones appearance, which is classically seen in pemphigus vulgaris.
In this condition, there is suprabasal splitting of the epidermis leading to blister formation. The basal layer remains adherent to the basement membrane, and gives the resemblance to the row of the tombstones.
A 43-year-old man is referred to the dermatology OPD with the following skin lesions that have been present for 4 months. The lesions are extremely painful. On examination, there are flaccid blisters that rupture easily and mucosal surfaces are normal. Where does the bullous split occur in this condition? 289
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Subcorneal layer
B) Spinous layer
C) Suprabasal layer
D) Dermo-epidermal junction
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
The given clinical scenario is suggestive of pemphigus foliaceus. The blisters are formed due to a split at the subcorneal layer.
Pemphigus foliaceus is a less severe variant of pemphigus vulgaris with antibodies against desmoglein-1. It presents with fewer flaccid bullae and mucosal sparing. It more commonly results in erosions with erythema, scales, and crust. Collarette scales may be present.
Which of the following is the most common cause of paraneoplastic pemphigus?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
B) Castleman disease
C) Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma
D) Waldenstrom's disease
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
Paraneoplastic pemphigus (PNP) is most commonly associated seen with non-Hodgkin's lymphoma.
PNP is a fatal autoimmune blistering disease associated with underlying benign or malignant neoplasms. It commonly presents 2-3 years after the development of malignancy, but can sometimes precede it as well. It is associated with multiple antigens including desmoglein, desmoplakin, periplakin.
A 28-year-old woman in her 37th week of gestation develops the following intensely pruritic skin lesions. On examination, a few tense bullae are noted and mucous membranes are spared. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding this condition? 290
Image not available for this question yet.
A) The initial site of involvement is the thigh
B) It resolves spontaneously in postpartum period
C) Associated with antibodies against BP180
D) Usually flares during delivery
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
This clinical scenario is suggestive of herpes gestationis or pemphigoid gestationis. The initial site of involvement is the periumbilical region.
It is a variant of bullous pemphigoid in pregnancy and is associated with antibodies against BP180. It presents in the II or III trimesters with pruritic, grouped vesicles that later spread to the abdomen, trunk, thighs. It flares in the intrapartum period and tends to resolves spontaneously in the postpartum period. However, it can recur in subsequent pregnancies.
A 45-year-old man presents to the OPD with skin fragility. On examination, he is noted to have erosions, bullae, and scarring over the extensor aspects of his elbows, hands, and knees. Direct immunofluorescence microscopy is given below. Presence of antibodies against which of the following is diagnostic of this condition? 291
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Collagen
B) Collagen VII
C) Collagen III
D) Collagen VIII
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
This clinical scenario and image showing linear IgG deposits in a u-serrated pattern on direct immunofluorescence microscopy are suggestive of epidermolysis bullosa acquisita (EBA), in which autoantibodies are formed against collagen VII.
It is an acquired autoimmune disorder, presenting in adults between 44-54 years. It has a chronic, relapsing course. Two main clinical forms can be differentiated:
Classical mechanobullous - Skin fragility, erosions, blisters, crusts, and scars on traumaprone areas like hands, knuckles, elbows, knees, toes.
Inflammatory - Resembles other pemphigoid diseases such as bullous pemphigoid. Associated with inflammatory infiltrate in the dermis.
The following image shows erosions and crusting in a patient with EBA.
A 24-year-old patient comes to you with the following lesions. He tells you that he used to develop similar lesions since childhood but they always heal without scarring. His father also suffers from a similar condition. Which protein is defective in this patient?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Collagen VII
B) K5/K14
C) Laminin
D) BP180
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
This clinical scenario and the image showing superficial blisters are suggestive of epidermolysis bullosa simplex, which is an autosomal dominant condition associated with a defect in K5/K14
proteins.
Epidermolysis bullosa congenita is a group of congenital mechanobullous disorders that arise after trauma and are common over the hands, feet, elbows, and knees. There are three forms of this condition.
Type
Epidermolysis bullosa simple x
Junctional epidermolysis bull osa
Epidermolysis bullosa dystro phica
Defective protein K5/K14
Laminin
Collagen VII in anchoring fib rils
Features
Intraepidermalblister with sp lit in basal layerHeals withou t scarring
Dermoepidermaljunction blis ter with split in lamina lucida layerPerioral involvement is frequentMay heal with scarri ng
Subepidermaltense blisters w ith defect in sublamina densa Frequent mucosal involveme ntHeal with scarring
A 28-year-old patient complains of the following intensely itchy rash over his elbows, knees, buttocks, and upper back. He has been having persistent watery loose stools for the past 3 months and reports feeling more tired than usual. A complete blood count shows microcytic, hypochromic anemia. What is the likely diagnosis? 292
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Pemphigus vulgaris
B) Bullous pemphigoid
C) Linear IgA disease
D) Dermatitis herpetiformis
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
This clinical scenario along with the given image showing pruritic, multiple, grouped papules and vesicles located on extensor aspects is suggestive of dermatitis herpetiformis.
It is associated with gluten-sensitive enteropathy or celiac disease. It is also associated with HLA DQ2/DQ8/B8. Deposition of IgA antitransglutaminase antibodies in the dermal papillae results in subepidermal blisters and vesicles.
This condition is associated with a small increase in the risk of T-cell lymphoma.
A young woman with celiac disease comes to you for a follow-up. She strictly follows a gluten-free diet, which has resulted in improvement of her diarrhea. However, the following itchy skin lesions have persisted despite her altered diet. What drug will you prescribe?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Dapsone
B) Oral steroids
C) Mycophenolate mofetil
D) Topical steroids
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
The given image showing itchy, grouped vesicles in a patient with celiac disease is suggestive of dermatitis herpetiformis. The drug of choice is dapsone.
The initial treatment of choice for dermatitis herpetiformis is a gluten-free diet.
Dapsone is used when response to dietary modification is inadequate or slow. It is highly effective in such cases and improves symptoms within one week of starting the drug.
Note: Gluten-containing grains such as barley, rye, oats, wheat (BROW) should be avoided in the diet. Rice and maize are tolerated.
Immunofluorescence microscopy of a skin biopsy from a patient shows IgA deposits as shown. Which of the following is incorrect about this condition?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) It is intensely pruritic
B) Patients present with papules and vesicles over extensor areas
C) Lymphocytic microabscesses are seen in dermis
D) Histopathology reveals subepidermal blisters
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
Granular deposits of IgA on direct immunofluorescence are suggestive of dermatitis herpetiformis or Duhring's disease. The characteristic microscopic feature is subepidermal blisters
with papillary tip microabscesses containing neutrophils.
It presents as grouped vesicles and papules. These lesions are commonly located over the extensor aspects of knees, elbows, buttocks, back, scalp which are associated with intense pruritus.
In which of the following conditions is Nikolsky's sign seen?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) 1, 3, 4
B) 1, 2, 3
C) 2, 4, 5
D) 1, 4, 5
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
Nikolsky's sign is positive in the following conditions:
Pemphigus vulgaris
Pemphigus foliaceus
Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome
Nikolsky's sign refers to the separation of the normallooking epidermis from the dermis by applying firm tangential sliding pressure, thereby producing an erosion. It is seen in conditions that produce intraepidermal blisters. Hence it is negative in subepidermal bullous conditions like bullous pemphigoid and epidermolysis bullosa acquisita.
Pseudo-Nikolsky's sign refers to epidermal separation as a result of epidermal necrosis, not acantholysis.
A 50-year-old man is referred to the dermatology OPD with the following painful and malodorous skin lesions over his trunk, face, and scalp. He also has longitudinal erythronychia and distal v-shaped nicks on his nails. Which of the following genes is mutated in this condition?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) ATP 2C2
B) ATP 2A2
C) ATP 3A2
D) ATP 2C1
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The given image showing greasy hyperkeratotic papules and the nail changes described point to a diagnosis of Darier’s disease. It occurs due to a mutation of the ATP2A2 gene.
Darier's disease is an autosomal dominant condition that occurs due to dysfunction of
the SERCA2 calcium channel (encoded by ATP2A2 gene), which is essential for desmosomal function. It results in acantholysis and dyskeratosis.
The papules begin over sun-exposed areas and gradually expand to form plaques over the seborrheic areas. The following nail changes, also shown in the image below, are characteristic of Darier's disease:
Longitudinal erythronychia
Longitudinal leukonychia
Distal v-shaped nicks
Note: Hailey-Hailey disease is due to a mutation in ATP2C1 gene, which also encodes the SERCA protein.
Corps ronds are a feature of which of the following conditions?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Keratosis follicularis
B) Hailey-Hailey disease
C) Duhring's disease
D) Keratosis pilaris
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
Corps ronds are seen in keratosis follicularis or Darier's disease.
It is an autosomal dominant condition that is characterized by keratotic papules over the seborrheic areas. The following histopathology findings are seen:
Acantholysis - loss of cohesion between keratinocytes
Dyskeratosis - abnormal premature keratinization in the epidermis
Lacunae - in suprabasal area
Corps ronds - rounded dyskeratotic cells with eosinophilic cytoplasm in the epidermis
Corps grains - small cells with shrunken cytoplasm
In which of the following conditions does acantholysis lead to a dilapidated brick wall appearance? 295
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Pemphigus vulgaris
B) Pemphigus foliaceus
C) Hailey-Hailey disease
D) Darier's disease
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
Dilapidated brick wall appearance is characteristically seen in Hailey-Hailey disease.
It is an autosomal dominant disorder occurring due to a mutation in the ATP2C1 gene encoding the SERCA calcium channel ATPase. It causes blistering, particularly in the intertriginous areas.
On histology, there is a widespread loss of cohesion between suprabasal keratinocytes leading
to acantholysis, which is incomplete. Hence, separated keratinocytes are still partially connected to each other giving the appearance of a dilapidated or broken brick wall, as shown in the following image.