A patient presented to her primary care physician with an itchy scalp and dandruff. On examination, the following finding was seen and the Auspitz sign was present. This disease is least likely to affect the .
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A) Axilla
B) Lower back
C) Elbows and knees
D) Gluteal cleft
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
The above clinical scenario is suggestive of chronic plaque psoriasis. Axilla is usually not involved in chronic plaque psoriasis. It is affected in inverse psoriasis.
Psoriasis is a common, chronic, immune-mediated inflammatory condition in which multiple genetic and environmental factors may lead to the formation of erythematous plaques with silvery-white scales. Genetic predisposition is present in type 1 plaque psoriasis and guttate psoriasis with HLAC:06:02.
Chronic plaque psoriasis, also called psoriasis vulgaris is the most common clinical type of psoriasis. Commonly affected sites are:
A 30-year-old man presents with the following skin finding. Which of the following clinical tests will aid in diagnosis? 260
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A) Grattage test
B) KOH smear
C) Besnier's sign
D) Skin biopsy
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
The presence of silvery-white scaly plaques on the extensor aspect of elbows and knees is a characteristic feature of psoriasis. Grattage test aids in its diagnosis.
Scratching (grattage) scales in psoriasis makes the scale appear more silver in color by introducing air–keratin interfaces. When the scales are completely scraped off, the basement membrane is exposed and is seen as a moist red surface (membrane of Bulkeley) through which dilated capillaries at the tip of elongated dermal papillae are torn, leading to multiple bleeding points.
This classical pinpoint bleeding is known as the Auspitz sign.
Auspitz sign is due to the elongated, dilated, tortuous vessels in the dermal papilla along with supra papillary thinning of the epidermis.
However, the Auspitz sign is neither sensitive nor specific for psoriasis.
While collecting data on nail changes in psoriasis patients, you note the following findings. Which of the following is the most specific finding for this condition?
A) Image
B) Image
C) Image
D) Image
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
Subungual oil drop sign or salmon patch (image C), a highly specific pathognomonic sign seen in nail psoriasis. It is a yellow-red discoloration in the nail bed resembling a drop of oil. The reddish-brown color is due to dilated, tortuous, superficial capillaries in the papillary dermis and parakeratosis.
A model presents to the OPD with the following cutaneous lesions. She informs the dermatologist that these lesions increase in size whenever she consumes alcohol and that they bleed whenever she scratches them. Which of the following is false regarding the pathogenesis of her condition? 262
A) Hyperproliferation of epidermis
B) Genetic predisposition HLAC:0ç:0Ž
C) Deficient Thè and Thè7 helper cells
D) I‘N-γ, TN‘-° , IL-è7 levels are raised
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
The image shows sharply marginated, dull-red plaques with silvery-white scales which have coalesced to form geographical lesions. The history and image point towards a diagnosis of psoriasis. Here, there is an increased number of activated Th1, Th17, and Th22 cells, with a deficiency of Th2 cells.
It is a common, chronic, immune-mediated inflammatory condition in which multiple genetic and environmental factors may lead to the formation of erythematous plaques with silvery-white scales. Genetic predisposition is present in type 1 plaque psoriasis and guttate psoriasis
with HLAC:06:02.
There is increased keratinocyte turnover. It normally takes 30 days for basal keratinocytes to reach the surface but in patients with psoriasis, this is reduced to 4-5 days.
The activation of T cells of the adaptive immune system, specifically Th17 cells, in turn, activates keratinocytes to proliferate and produce multiple chemokines and antimicrobial peptides.
A patient who presented to the OPD with a papulos’uamous lesion has the following nail finding. Histopathology of the skin lesion is unlikely to show which of the following? 263
A) Epidermal thickening
B) Suprapapillary thinning
C) Kogoj spongiform pustules
D) Pautrier's microabscess
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
The given image showing nail pitting and salmon patches in fingernails are characteristic of psoriasis. Munro microabscess is seen in psoriasis whereas Pautrier's microabscess is seen in mycosis fungoides.
Histopathological features of psoriasis:
Irregular epidermal thickening (acanthosis)
Hyperkeratosis and parakeratosis
Suprapapillary thinning
Clubbing of rete ridges at the base
Kogoj spongiform pustules (collection of neutrophils in Malpighian layer)
Munro microabscesses (collection of neutrophils in stratum corneum)
Absence of stratum granulosum
Dilated, tortuous blood vessels in the dermis
Suprapapillary mononuclear leukocytic infiltrates
Remember: M (Munro microabscess) is seen in P (Psoriasis) and P (Pautrier’s microabscess) is seen in M (mycosis fungoides)
The image below shows histopathology of psoriasis.
Biopsy taken from a patient who presented with a papulosquamous skin disorder shows a camel foot appearance on HPE. Which disorder is she most likely suffering from?
A) Pityriasis rubra pilaris
B) Psoriasis
C) Lichen nitidus
D) Lichen planus
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
Camel foot appearance is seen in histopathology of plaque-type psoriasis.
Normally, only 10 of the basal cells are in the proliferative phase, whereas in psoriasis about 90 of the basal cells are in this phase. As a result, to accommodate the increasing population of basal cells, rete pegs take a plunge in the dermis in the form of regular elongation of rete ridges, giving the 'camel foot' or clubbed appearance to epidermal rete ridges.
Other HPE findings seen in psoriasis:
Regular acanthosis (epidermal thickening)
Hyperkeratosis and parakeratosis
Suprapapillary thinning
Kogoj spongiform pustules (collection of neutrophils in Malpighian layer)
Munro microabscesses (collection of neutrophils in stratum corneum)
Which among the following is the most common presentation of psoriatic arthritis?
A) Classic psoriatic arthritis
B) Arthritis mutilans
C) Asymmetric oligoarthritis
D) Symmetric polyarthritis
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
Asymmetric oligoarthritis is the most common type of psoriatic arthritis.
Psoriatic arthritis refers to an inflammatory musculoskeletal disease that has both autoimmune and autoinflammatory features characteristically occurring in individuals with psoriasis.
Asymmetric oligoarthritis commonly involves a knee or another large joint with a few small joints in the fingers or toes, often with dactylitis.
A 40-year-old woman who presented with pain and stiffness in her hand for the past 6 weeks was diagnosed with classic psoriatic arthritis after a thorough workup. Which of the following joints is typically affected by this disorder?
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A) Proximal interphalangeal joint
B) Distal Interphalangeal joint
C) Metatarsophalangeal joint
D) Metacarpophalangeal joint
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
Classic psoriatic arthritis typically involves the distal interphalangeal joints.
A 42-year-old man with a history of psoriasis vulgaris was referred to the dermatology department with 6 weeks of worsening psoriasis. He was started on valproic acid for bipolar disorder 4 months prior. On examination, the following finding was noted. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Rupioid psoriasis
B) Photosensitive psoriasis
C) Small plaque psoriasis
D) Koebnerised psoriasis
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
Cone-shaped heaped-up hyperkeratotic lesions shaped like a shell (limpet) are seen in this rupioid variety of psoriasis. Valproic acid may be associated infrequently with such psoriatic flare-ups.
The term “rupioid” (from the Greek rhupos, meaning filth) is used to describe oyster or limpet shell-shaped thick keratotic lesions. In contrast to rupioid forms, regular plaque-type psoriasis has a white, nonadherent, and thin, scaly surface.
Severe psoriatic flares and atypical forms of the disease (including rupioid plaques) have been reported in HIV-positive patients and with certain drugs.
265 In which variant of psoriasis is scaling absent?
A) Erythrodermic Psoriasis
B) Guttate Psoriasis
C) Inverse psoriasis
D) Sebopsoriasis
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
In inverse psoriasis, flexural plaques are thin and scaling is greatly reduced or absent.
It involves the inguinal creases, axillae, submammary folds, gluteal cleft, umbilicus, and other body folds. It is more common in older adults and is associated with obesity.
Option B: Guttate psoriasis presents with small plaque lesions with scales 2-3mm to 1 cm distributed over the trunk and proximal limbs in children
Option D: In sebopsoriasis, plaques of thin sharply demarcated erythema with variable scales may occur in the typical distribution of seborrhoeic dermatitis
Option A: Erythrodermic psoriasis has most or all of the body surface affected (gt;90BSA)
A patient was treated with steroids for psoriasis. On stopping the treatment, he develops fever, malaise, and lesion as seen in the image below. What is the most probable diagnosis?
A) Pustular psoriasis
B) Staphylococcal infection
C) Acute generalised exanthematous pustulosis
D) Subcorneal pustulosis
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
The given clinical scenario points towards the diagnosis of pustular psoriasis.
Pustular psoriasis is a type of psoriasis characterized by tiny pus-filled lesions (pustules) having a characteristic lakes or sheets of pus appearance (seen in the image).
The patient presents with a history of fever and malaise along with the presence of pustules on a circumscribed, fiery red, edematous or scaling plaque. The pus is usually sterile. Sudden withdrawal of systemic steroids is usually the trigger for this condition.
Acute generalized pustular psoriasis of pregnancy (Impetigo herpetiformis)
Treatment: Acitretin (oral retinoid) is the drug of choice for pustular psoriasis. However, it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Systemic steroids are used instead. Cyclosporine is the second-line drug.
Note: Systemic steroids are never used for the treatment of psoriasis except in the case of Impetigo herpetiformis where they are first-line agents.
A 9-year-old boy developed skin lesions on his trunk and proximal portion of his arms, 10 days after he recovered from an episode of pharyngitis. Which of the following statements are correct about this condition? 266
A) 2, 3
B) 2 and 5
C) 3, 4, and 5
D) 1 and 4
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
The clinical stem of small, red, drop-like lesions on the trunk and arms (shown in the image) after an attack of pharyngitis is suggestive of guttate psoriasis.
Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis occurring as a sudden onset shower of small lesions seen diffusely over the body, more on the trunk and proximal limbs. It is more common in children and young adults, following infection with group A streptococcus and is often the first presentation of psoriasis. It can also occur as a flare-up in adults with plaque psoriasis that began in childhood. It is linked to HLAC:06:02.
Lesions usually resolve over about 3 months. Some patients with acute guttate psoriasis might develop plaque psoriasis in the future.
Treatment:
Topical steroids
Antimicrobials - Recurrent episodes may be related to the pharyngeal carriage of the responsible streptococcus by the patient or close contact. A course of semisynthetic penicillin with rifampin may be required to clear chronic streptococcal carriage.
Phototherapy - Broad-band ultraviolet B (UVB)- Response is better with broadband UVB over narrow-band UVB.
A chronic course is seen in plaque and follicular psoriasis.
Pustular psoriasis patients can have a fever, erythroderma, hypocalcemia, and cachexia.
A dermatologist can use the Goekerman regimen to treat which of the following conditions?
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A) Paraneoplastic pemphigus
B) Psoriasis
C) Eczema
D) Lichen planus
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
Goekerman regimen is used in the treatment of psoriasis.
The modified Goekerman regimen involves application of coal tar for 5 hours/day in combination with exposure to narrowband UVB (NBUVB).
Ingram Regimen is another treatment regimen used in psoriasis. Inpatients are treated with a coal tar bath, suberythemogenic UVB and then dithranol in Lassar’s paste is applied to plaques.
The mechanism of action of dithranol may relate to its antiproliferative and proapoptotic effects on keratinocytes. Dithranol produces brown staining of the skin, which resolves about 2 weeks after therapy is completed.
Both regimens have a good safety profile and are highly efficacious.
What is the treatment of choice for a patient who presented with the following finding? 267
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A) P˜™A
B) Steroids
C) Methotrexate
D) Infliximab
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
The patient has right knee effusion, dactylitis of multiple digits, sharply demarcated red papulosquamous lesions on both knees all of which point towards a diagnosis of psoriatic arthritis.
Methotrexate and apremilast are the first-line drugs for the treatment of moderate to severe psoriasis associated with psoriatic arthritis.
A patient with a known case of chronic plaque psoriasis with more than 50 skin involvement presents to you. Which of the following will you not recommend?
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A) Oral methotrexate
B) NB ˜™B
C) Oral steroids
D) Oral cyclosporine
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
Oral/systemic steroids are not used in the management of chronic plaque psoriasis. Topical steroids may be used.
Systemic steroids are avoided because the withdrawal of systemic steroids causes the development of pustular psoriasis.
The only indication of using systemic steroids in psoriasis is generalized pustular psoriasis in pregnancy (impetigo herpetiformis).
Other options maybe used in treatment of extensive (gt;30) chronic plaque psoriasis.
In which of the following cases would you prescribe systemic corticosteroids?
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A) 22-year-old woman with impetigo herpetiformis
B) 40-year-old man with severe psoriatic arthritis
C) 11-year-old boy with guttate psoriasis
D) 33-year-old woman with erythrodermic psoriasis
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
Impetigo herpetiformis (pustular psoriasis of pregnancy) is the only definitive indication for systemic steroids.
Steroids can also be used for the control of acute symptoms like ARDS accompanying pustular psoriasis.
Steroids are contraindicated in all other forms of psoriasis as sudden withdrawal can trigger severe pustular or erythrodermic psoriasis. As most of the other medications are contraindicated in pregnancy, this is the only definitive indication for systemic steroids.
The image shows pustular psoriasis. Acitretin, an oral retinoid is the treatment of choice for pustular psoriasis. Other first-line drugs are methotrexate and cyclosporine.
Pustular psoriasis is a complication of psoriasis wherein multiple sterile pustules develop. The acute generalized form of pustular psoriasis is termed as Von Zumbusch type.
The most provocative factor is the withdrawal of systemic corticosteroids. Steroids are relatively contraindicated except in pustular psoriasis of pregnancy (impetigo herpetiformis) where it is the treatment of choice.
Note: Tar and dithranol are absolutely contraindicated in pustular psoriasis.
The skin biopsy from a patient with a vesiculobullous disease is shown below. What is the diagnosis?
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A) Pemphigus vulgaris
B) Pemphigus foliaceus
C) Dermatitis herpetiformis
D) Bullous pemphigoid
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
The image shows a sub-epidermal split that is suggestive of bullous pemphigoid.
As the antibodies in bullous pemphigoid are directed against BPAg2 and BPAg1 present in the basement membrane zone, intercellular junctions are intact and acantholysis is not seen.
Option A: Pemphigus vulgaris is characterized by intraepidermal (suprabasal) acantholytic blisters.
Option B: Pemphigus foliaceus shows intraepidermal (subcorneal) acantholytic blisters. Option C: In dermatitis herpetiformis, there are papillary tip micro-abscesses.
281 A patient presented with pruritic blisters. Direct immunofluorescence microscopy for IgG was done. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding this condition?
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A) It is a disease of the elderly
B) Oral erosions are frequently seen
C) Tense bullae are seen
D) Nikolsky sign is negative
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
Linear IgG deposits on direct immunofluorescence (DIF) microscopy are characteristic of bullous pemphigoid. Oral erosions are a rare feature.
Bullous pemphigoid is an autoimmune disease of the elderly, between 70 to 80 years. Bullae are tense and very pruritic, mostly present on the flexural aspects of limbs and abdomen. They may reach several centimeters in size. The bullae are Nikolsky negative as acantholysis is absent.
On DIF microscopy, an n-serrated pattern is seen on 600-fold magnification.
A patient presents with the following itchy lesions. On examination, Nikolsky sign is negative. Autoantibodies against which of the following antigens are most commonly seen in this condition? 282
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A) BP180
B) BP230
C) BP280
D) Desmoglein 1
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
Tense bullae over the flexor aspect that are Nikolsky negative are suggestive of bullous pemphigoid. Autoantibodies against BP180 are most commonly seen in this condition.
BP180 is also known as BPAg2 and it is seen in 75–90 of bullous pemphigoid patients. Autoantibodies against BP230 or BPAg1 are recognized in 50–70 of bullous pemphigoid patients.