Which is the most common metal to cause allergic contact dermatitis?
A) Chromium
B) Nickel
C) Silver
D) Copper
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
Nickel is the most frequent contact allergen for contact dermatitis. Most of its salts (nickel chloride, nickel sulfate) are readily soluble in water and sweat and have strong sensitizing properties.
It is more common in women than in men. Jewelry and metal components of clothing are the usual sources of nickel in prolonged contact with the skin.
Allergic contact dermatitis is an inflammatory reaction to a substance (allergen) that causes an eruption only in those individuals previously sensitized by the same molecule. It is a
delayed-type of hypersensitivity (type IV). Substances causing allergic contact dermatitis:
A 30-year-old domestic help presents to the dermatology clinic with intensely pruritic lesions for 3 days. History reveals that the lesions started to develop after she recently changed the cleaning detergent. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to the likely diagnosis. 188
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A) Sensitisation is not required
B) It can occur in anyone without predisposing factors
C) It is a Type-IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction
D) Due to direct toxic effects of a strong chemical
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
The above scenario is suggestive of irritant contact dermatitis which is the cutaneous response to the physical/toxic effects of a wide range of environmental exposures. It is not an immunologically
mediated reaction.
Irritant contact dermatitis is also called wear and tear dermatitis. Examples include housewives eczema due to soaps and detergents and wetwork, napkin or diaper rash.
Treatment includes avoidance of irritants, personal protection, and 'barrier creams'.
Irritant contact dermatitis
Not an immunologically med iated reaction
It can occur in anyone witho ut predisposing factors
Sensitization is not required
Allergic contact dermatitis
Immunologically mediated re action (type-IV delayed hyper sensitivity)
It only occurs in those indivi duals with a history of atopy
A 45-year-old male presents with itchy papules over the face, neck, and V area of the chest for the last 3 years which are exacerbated in summers and improved in winters. What test can be done to confirm the diagnosis?
A) IgE levels
B) Skin biopsy
C) Prick Test
D) Photopatch Test
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
The given history points towards the diagnosis of photoallergic contact dermatitis. Photopatch test is used to diagnose this condition.
It is a delayed-type IV hypersensitivity reaction with a predilection for photo exposed sites with welldemarcated margins where the skin is covered by clothing (at the collar and ‘V’ of the neck, on the backs of the hands, and on the ankles). It spares the skin behind the earlobe (Wilkinson’s triangle) since it is a photo-protected site.
Photopatch test: The standard patch test units are applied in two sets (on either side of the spine) and kept covered. One set of patches is removed and exposed to UVA. After irradiation, the other set of patches are also removed and both the sites are covered again for 48 hours. A positive reaction on the irradiated side only is an indication of photoallergy
The image below shows a photopatch test showing reaction after exposure to UVA only.
What is the gold standard diagnostic test for airborne contact dermatitis?
A) Radioallergosorbent assay
B) Patch test
C) Serum IgE assay
D) Serum eosinophil count
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The gold standard test for airborne contact dermatitis is a patch test.
Patch testing is done to document sensitivity to a specific antigen. Patch test antigens comprising suspected allergens are applied to the patient’s back and covered for 48 hours. After the patch is removed, the area is examined for delayed type of hypersensitivity.
Atopic dermatosis is a relapsing inflammatory skin disorder that is common in infancy and presents differently in different age groups. It is characterized by pruritus leading to lichenification.
Clinical features:
Infants - The lesions most frequently start on the face, and then, the extensor aspect of the
knees and elbows are involved.
Children: Dry, scaly, pruritic, excoriated papules and plaques in the flexural areas and neck.
Adults: Lichenification and dry, fissured skin in a flexural distribution.
A 27-year-old man comes to the emergency department with the following lesions one hour after eating shrimp. Which of the following is incorrect about this condition?
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A) It is an evanescent lesion
B) Cause is unknown in majority of cases
C) It is purely immune-mediated
D) Subsides without leaving pigmentation
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
The image shows multiple wheals in acute spontaneous urticaria. It is mediated by immunological and non-immunological mechanisms.
The primary mechanism of urticaria is mast cell degranulation triggered by immune
(IgE-mediated) or non-immune (cytokines, complement) mechanisms, which cause the release of histamine. This increases vascular permeability and vasodilation.
It can be acute (lt;6 weeks) or chronic (gt;6 weeks). Acute spontaneous urticaria can be triggered:
Hypersensitivity
Viral infections
Food allergy
Drug allergy
Blood transfusions.
However, the actual cause is unknown in nearly 60 of cases.
It is characterized by wheals, which are evanescent, welldefined, pink, or pale swellings due to reversible dermal edema. It usually fades within hours without pigmentation. Wheals are usually very itchy and associated with a surrounding red flare when they arise.
They may occur anywhere on the body, including the scalp, palms, and soles, in variable numbers and sizes.
A teenager with the following lesions is brought to the hospital by his coach. The lesions had developed suddenly all over his body following sports practice. Which of the following statements is true about this condition? 207
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A) The lesions typically last for 24 hours
B) It is due to stimulation of parasympathetic nerves
C) It can also be triggered by spicy food
D) Symptomatic dermographism can occur in this condition
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
This clinical scenario with the development of itchy monomorphic, micropapular wheals that appear within minutes of sweating is suggestive of cholinergic urticaria.
Cholinergic urticaria is an inducible urticaria that is common in adolescents. It occurs to due stimulation of the cholinergic post-ganglionic sympathetic nerve supply to eccrine sweat glands. It
may be triggered by a rise in core body temperature, spicy food, or emotion and lasts for a few minutes to 1-2 hours.
Symptomatic dermographism refers to an exaggerated wheal-flare response to physical stimulus, associated with severe itching. It is not a feature of this condition.
While vacationing in Goa, an 18-year-old girl develops small itchy wheals ten minutes after stepping into the sun. They are prominent over her face, neck, and arms. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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A) Cholinergic urticaria
B) Heat urticaria
C) Polymorphic light eruptions
D) Solar urticaria
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
This clinical scenario is suggestive of solar urticaria. The wheals develop within minutes of sun exposure and are common on sun-exposed areas.
Solar urticaria is a type of induced urticaria that occurs in response to visible or UV radiation and usually fades within 1-2 hours.
Option A: Cholinergic urticaria presents with small wheals that occur due to sweating and a rise in core body temperature. Though it can also occur following sun exposure, it is more pronounced in the covered parts of the body, where the temperature is higher.
Option B: Heat contact urticaria is a rare form of urticaria that develops following localized warming of skin. It lasts for about one hour.
Option C: Polymorphic light eruption, urticarial lesions appear hours later and last for days after exposure to sunlight.
The mother of a 10-year-old boy brings him to the dermatologist for skin problems. She reports that whenever he wears tight clothing or when something brushes against his skin, his skin appears as shown in the image below. Which of the following conditions is this phenomenon seen in? 209
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A) Chronic urticaria
B) Atopic dermatitis
C) Angioedema
D) Cholinergic urticaria
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The given image showing white lines that developed in response to light pressure on the skin is suggestive of white dermographism. It is pronounced in atopic dermatitis.
It is due to an abnormal vascular response, where capillary vasoconstriction occurs in response to light stroking of the skin. While it can occur normally, it is more pronounced in patients with eczema. Tight clothing is a common triggering stimulus. It causes white lines in areas where pressure has been applied, as shown below.
Note: Black dermographism is characterized by skin discoloration after pressure from a metallic object.
A 9-year-old boy presents with the following lesions all over his body for the past two days. They are associated with severe itching. Vitals are stable and saturation is 98 in room air. What is the best initial treatment?
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A) Omalizumab
B) Systemic corticosteroids
C) Topical corticosteroids
D) Antihistamines
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
This clinical scenario and image showing wheals are suggestive of acute urticaria. The best initial treatment is oral antihistamines.
The lesions are due to histamine release caused by mast cell degranulation as a result of immune and non-immune mechanisms. The treatment is as follows:
First-line: Second generation non-sedating antihistamines.
Second-line: Oral corticosteroids and leukotriene receptor antagonists
Third-line: Immunomodulators like cyclosporine and tacrolimus
Fourth-line: Omalizumab, an antibody targeted against IgE
A 1-year-old girl is brought to the OPD by her parents with a 1-month history of the following skin lesions, which are present all over her body. Which of the following statements about this condition is incorrect? 210
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A) Due to gain of function mutation in KIT gene
B) Age of onset in adults is between 20-40 years
C) It is a type of systemic mastocytosis
D) It can present with bullous lesions
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
The given image shows urticaria pigmentosa lesions on the trunk of a child. It is the commonest type of cutaneous mastocytosis. It occurs due to an increased number of mast cells in the skin.
The mast cells accumulate in tissues due to a gain-offunction mutation of KIT. The symptoms occur due to the release of mast cell-derived mediators. The age of onset is in the first year in the childhood type and 20–40 years in the adult type.
It presents with numerous reddishbrown or pale monomorphic maculopapules, plaques, or nodules in a symmetrical distribution. Lesions can occur anywhere but are common over trunk and thighs. The palms and soles are usually spared. It can also present with bullous lesions that heal without scarring.
Treatment includes:
Avoiding physical stimuli that trigger mast cell degranulation- temperature extremes, pressure, alcohol
In which of the following conditions would you expect to see Darier's sign?
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A) Darier's disease
B) Urticaria pigmentosa
C) Hereditary angioedema
D) Atopic dermatitis
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
Darier's sign is seen in urticaria pigmentosa. It refers to the development of urticaria and erythema around the lesions after mild trauma, including scratching or rubbing of the lesion.
Urticaria pigmentosa is the most common pattern of cutaneous mastocytosis, which occurs due to an increased number of mast cells in the skin. It presents with reddish-brown or pale maculopapules, plaques, nodules in symmetric distribution, sparing the palms and soles.
Darier's sign is not specific for mastocytosis as it is also rarely seen in juvenile xanthogranuloma and acute lymphoblastic leukemia.
Note: Pseudo-Darier sign is seen in soft tissue hamartoma, with piloerection and transient induration after stroking the lesions. Darier's disease is an autosomal dominant disorder, characterized by hyperkeratotic papules and plaques along with nail changes.
Which of the following statements about angioneurotic edema is false?
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A) Pitting edema of face, lips and mucous membranes
B) C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency can cause it
C) Wheals and itching do not occur
D) Also known as Quincke's disease
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
Angioneurotic edema or Quincke's disease is characterized by non-pitting edema of the face, lips, and mucous membranes.
Angioedema is the accumulation of fluid in the subcutaneous and submucosal layers. It is common in the lips, eyelids and genitalia due to laxity of tissue in these areas. It can present with or without wheals.
Quincke's disease refers to the hereditary form of angioedema without wheals. There is no itching. It is bradykinin-mediated and is usually linked to abnormality or deficiency of C1esterase inhibitor (C1INH) enzyme. Other non-hereditary causes include acquired C1INH deficiency and use of ACE inhibitors.
Angioedema with wheals is a type of spontaneous or inducible urticaria.
A 3-year-old girl is rushed to the casualty with sudden-onset breathing difficulty. History reveals that her father also suffers from similar episodes. Examination findings are as follows. Which of the following statements is false regarding this condition?
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A) Type II of this condition is most common
B) The enzyme involved is C1 INH
C) There is loss of inhibition of Hageman factor
D) Associated with C4 and C2 deficiency
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
The image shows subcutaneous and submucosal edema of the face and lips without wheals. Along with the history, a diagnosis of hereditary angioedema (HAE) is most likely. Type I HAE is the most common form (85).
There are three types of hereditary angioedema (HAE):
Type 1 (85): C1INH deficiency
Type 2 (15): Dysfunction of C1-INH, but normal levels
Type 3 (rare) : Normal C1-INH levels and function
HAE occurs due to a mutation in the SERPING1 gene, which codes for the C1 esterase inhibitor
(C1INH). It is also called angioneurotic edema or Quincke's disease. C1INH enzyme normally inhibits the following:
Complement system
Kallikrein system
Factor XII or Hageman factor
In HAE, loss of C1INH activity leads to loss of inhibition of these above processes. This leads to decreased C4 and C2 levels and bradykinin accumulation.
The laboratory evaluation of a patient with the following findings showed decreased C4 and C1-INH levels with normal C1q. What is the diagnosis? 212
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A) Hereditary angioedema type 2
B) Hereditary angioedema type 1
C) Acquired angioedema type 2
D) Acquired angioedema type 1
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The image shows subcutaneous and submucosal edema of the face without wheals, pointing towards a diagnosis of angioedema. Hereditary angioedema type 1 is characterized by decreased C1INH levels and decreased C2 and C4 with normal C1q levels.
Angioedema without wheals can be due to hereditary or acquired causes. Levels of antigen C1q help in differentiating between them. In hereditary angioedema, the C1q level is normal whereas, in acquired angioedema, the C1q level is usually low.
A 66-year-old woman with poorly controlled hypertension was seen at a private clinic. The decision was made to add enalapril to her regimen. Two weeks later, she develops the following finding. Which of the following statements is true regarding this condition?
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A) It is not seen with the newer drugs in this class
B) It occurs due to reduced bradykinin metabolism
C) Symptoms are mild and self-resolving
D) It is also common with angiotensin receptor blockers
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The given clinical scenario is suggestive of ACE inhibitor-induced angioedema, which is due to inhibition of ACE resulting in reduced bradykinin metabolism. Increased bradykinin level produces vasodilation causing angioedema. It typically occurs within 3 weeks of starting treatment but can occur anytime.
ACE inhibitorinduced angioedema is common in older people on treatment with ACE inhibitors.
It is a class effect seen with all ACE inhibitors. It is uncommon with angiotensin receptor blockers.
It predominantly affects the face and oropharynx. Symptoms may be severe, and laryngeal involvement may be life-threatening.
While having dinner with his friends, a man develops swelling of his face and lips and has difficulty breathing. He is rushed to the nearest hospital. In the ER, he scratches himself furiously and keeps saying that something terrible is going to happen to him. On examination, urticaria and hypotension are noted. What is the most likely diagnosis?
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A) Angioneurotic edema
B) Anaphylaxis
C) Generalized acute urticaria
D) Steakhouse syndrome
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
The given clinical scenario is suggestive of anaphylaxis. It is a medical emergency. It is a severe form of type I hypersensitivity. Cinical features include:
Urticaria
Angioedema
Severe pruritus
Bronchospasm
Laryngeal edema
Hypotension.
Sense of impending doom
The first step in management is to secure the airway. This must be followed by intramuscular administration of epinephrine in the lateral thigh. The dose is 0.3 to 0.5 ml of 1:1000 solution. It can be repeated after 10-15 minutes if necessary.
Option A: Angioneurotic edema is not associated with pruritus or systemic features. Option C: Generalized acute urticaria is not associated with systemic features.
Option D: Steakhouse syndrome refers to oesophageal impaction of food. It presents with dysphagia. There is no respiratory distress.
Cutis marmorata refers to the pinkish-blue mottled or marbled appearance when subjected to cold temperatures.
It is seen throughout infancy and in 50 of children. It is caused by simultaneous dilation and contraction of the superficial capillaries. Rewarming restores the skin to normal. This is a physiological finding and requires no treatment. However, persistent cutis marmorata may be seen in trisomies 18 and 21.
Note: Cutis marmorata telangiectatica congenita is a distinct vascular developmental disorder and is easily distinguished as it is fixed (it does not disappear on rewarming), and it may be associated with a variety of other anomalies such as limb growth or renal anomalies.
Q848.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Reactive Skin Diseases and Drug Eruptions - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
The most common triggering factor of the given condition is
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Vaccination
B) Malignancy
C) Drugs
D) Infection
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
The given image shows characteristic target lesions of erythema multiforme. This most commonly occurs following a herpes simplex virus infection.
Erythema multiforme is best regarded as a selflimiting cytotoxic dermatitis resulting from cellmediated hypersensitivity.
It presents clinically with a spectrum of macular, papular, or urticarial lesions, as well as the classic acral iris or ‘target lesions’.
Target lesions are less than 3 cm in diameter, rounded, and have three zones:
Central area of dusky erythema or purpura
Middle paler zone of edema
Outer ring of erythema with a welldefined edge
Lesions may involve the palms and the trunk. Oral and genital mucosal membranes lesions are associated with erosions
The image below shows target lesions.
Q849.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Reactive Skin Diseases and Drug Eruptions - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
Which of the following statements is false about erythema multiforme?
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A) Erythema multiforme major is the most common form
B) The lesions occur in crops and fade in 1-2 weeks
C) Photoaggravation of the lesions is seen
D) The distribution of target lesions is mainly acral
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
Erythema multiforme minor (papular or simplex form) accounts for approximately 80 of cases and is the most common form.
Clinically erythema multiforme presents as macular, papular, or urticarial lesions, as well as the classic iris or ‘target lesions’, distributed preferentially on the distal extremities. Raised atypical target lesions having only two of the zones may also be seen and mucous membranes are rarely involved. Koebnerization accounts for some bizarre clinical distributions.
Photoaggravation of erythema multiforme is well recognized.
The lesions appear in successive crops for a few days and fade in 1–2 weeks, sometimes leaving dusky discoloration.
The image given below shows mucosal involvement in erythema multiforme major
Q850.
Dermatology
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Reactive Skin Diseases and Drug Eruptions - DermatologySource: Internal
Explanation ready
In which of the following conditions is interface dermatitis not seen? 223
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A) Erythema multiforme
B) ‚ichen planus
C) ƒraft versus host disease
D) Ec„ema
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
Eczema shows spongiotic dermatitis and not interface dermatitis.
Interface dermatitis includes diseases in which the primary pathology involves the dermo-epidermal junction.
The salient histological findings include:
Basal cell vacuolization
Apoptotic keratinocytes (colloid or Civatte bodies)
Obscuring of the dermo-epidermal junction by inflammatory cells
Common conditions showing interface dermatitis are: