Topic: Basal Ganglia and Limbic SystemSource: Internal
Explanation ready
A 64-year-old man presented with a reduced range of motion in his limbs. On examination, cogwheel rigidity and resting tremors were noticed. What is the direct pathway involved in this disorder? 385
The given clinical scenario is suggestive of Parkinson's disease, a disorder involving the destruction of the substantia nigra in the basal ganglia. The most accurate representation of the direct pathway in the basal ganglia is cortex gt; striatum gt; globus pallidusgt; thalamus gt; premotor cortex.
Parkinson's disease is a chronic progressive neurodegenerative disease that is clinically manifested by a triad of cardinal motor symptoms- rigidity, bradykinesia and tremor.
The direct pathway stimulates the cortex to produce movement and the indirect pathway inhibits movement.
Q502.
Anatomy
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Basal Ganglia and Limbic SystemSource: Internal
Explanation ready
Which of the following is not a part of the limbic system?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Cingulate gyrus
B) Amygdala
C) Hippocampal formation
D) Medial thalamic nuclei
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
Medial thalamic nuclei are not part of the limbic system. The anterior nucleus of the thalamus is a part of the limbic system.
The limbic system controls emotional behavior and is involved in the conversion of short-term memory to long-term memory. It consists of both the grey mater and white mater. It is located between the cerebral cortex and the hypothalamus.
A man presented with frequent urination and increased thirst. MRI revealed the absence of the posterior pituitary bright spot. He was initiated on desmopressin which improved his symptoms. The affected structure is derived from:
A) Metencephalon
B) Myelencephalon
C) Telencephalon
D) Prosencephalon
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
The given clinical scenario of polyuria and polydipsia along with the investigation findings is suggestive of central diabetes insipidus. It involves the diencephalon, a structure that is derived from the prosencephalon.
The diencephalon forms the thalamus, epithalamus, subthalamus, and hypothalamus.
The MRI given below shows the posterior pituitary bright spot. The arrow points at the posterior pituitary and the arrowhead at the anterior pituitary.
The medial nucleus of the thalamus predominantly receives input from the and sends output to the .
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Mamillary bodies, Cingulate gyrus
B) Hypothalamus, Prefrontal cortex
C) Substantia nigra, Motor cortex
D) Cerebellum, Motor cortex
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The medial nucleus of the thalamus predominantly receives input from the hypothalamus and sends output to the prefrontal cortex.
The medial thalamic nuclei contain the large dorsomedial nucleus and several smaller nuclei:
Internally, the dorsomedial nucleus is connected to all other thalamic nuclei.
Externally, it has 2 major connections—the prefrontal cortex and the hypothalamus. Its functions include integration of somatic, visceral, and olfactory sensory information as well as relation of this sensory information to emotional feelings and subjective states.
A woman presented with diplopia and conjugate nystagmus suggestive of a left-sided oculomotor paralysis. She also had right-sided hemiplegia. Choose the correct statement about the affected structure.
Image not available for this question yet.
A) The superior brachium passes from the superior colliculus to the medial geniculate body
B) The trochlear nerve emerges above the inferior colliculus
C) The substantia nigra separates the tegmentum from the tectum
D) The tectum lies posterior to the cerebral aqueduct
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
The given clinical scenario of contralateral hemiplegia and paralysis of the third cranial nerve is suggestive of Weber syndrome involving the midbrain. In this, the tectum lies posterior to the cerebral aqueduct.
The midbrain connects the pons and cerebellum with the forebrain. Externally, on the posterior surface, there are two pairs of colliculi—the corpora quadrigemina:
The superior colliculi are centers for visual reflexes. The superior brachium connects the superior colliculi to the lateral geniculate body and the optic tract.
The inferior colliculi are auditory centres, and the inferior brachium connects the inferior colliculus to the medial geniculate body.
The trochlear nerve emerges in the midline below the inferior colliculi.
Internally, the midbrain comprises two cerebral peduncles. Each one is divided into an anterior crus cerebri and a posterior tegmentum by the substantia nigra. The oculomotor nerve emerges from a groove on the medial side of crus cerebri and passes to the lateral wall of the cavernous sinus.
An electrician experienced a 10,000 V shock through his body and suffered third-degree burns on his hands and scalp. Diffusion tensor imaging showed damage to the right medial lemniscus tract. This is formed by:
A) Anterior external arcuate fibres
B) Internal arcuate fibres
C) Posterior external arcuate fibres
D) External arcuate fibres
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The given clinical scenario is suggestive of medial lemniscus tract lesion following a high voltage electrical injury. The medial lemniscus is formed by the internal arcuate fibres. It is also called Reil's ribbon.
The internal arcuate fibres are axons of the second-order neurons from nucleus gracilis and nucleus cuneatus. In the upper medulla, they decussate and form the medial lemniscus which synapses in the thalamus.
The image given below depicts the medial lemniscus tract.
A 62-year-old man presented with sudden onset of loss of pain and temperature on the right side of his face and left side of his body. He also has dysphagia and dysarthria. Thrombosis of which vessel is likely to cause the given condition?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Subclavian artery
B) Anterior inferior cerebellar artery
C) Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
D) Posterior cerebral artery
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
The given clinical features are suggestive of lateral medullary syndrome or Wallenberg syndrome, which is seen in thrombosis of the posterior inferior cerebellar artery.
The lateral part of the medulla is supplied by the posterior inferior cerebellar artery, a branch of the vertebral artery. Injury or thrombosis to this artery results in lateral medullary
syndrome leading to:
Signs and symptoms:
Contralateral loss of pain and temperature on the body
Ipsilateral loss of pain and te mperature on the face
A 27-year-old man had an RTA resulting in the following gait abnormality. What is the largest part of the affected structure?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Anterior lobe
B) Middle lobe
C) Flocculonodular lobe
D) Vermis
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The given clinical scenario is suggestive of post-traumatic cerebellar ataxia presenting with impaired balance. The largest part of the affected structure i.e. the cerebellum is the middle lobe, also known as the posterior lobe. The gait shown in the above video is a cerebellar ataxic
gait. Here, the patient is seen attempting tandem walking and displaying improper heel-toe coordination, erratic foot placement, and truncal swaying.
The cerebellum consists of two hemispheres (right and left) joined by a median vermis. It is divided into three lobes:
Anterior lobe - lies superiorly above the primary fissure
Middle lobe - lies inferiorly below the primary fissure
Flocculonodular lobe - lies posterior to the uvulonodular fissure
It has two surfaces, superior and inferior, separated by a horizontal fissure. It is connected to the other parts of the central nervous system via three peduncles.
422 The MRI report of a patient admitted with gait disturbances is given below. Phylogenetically, the oldest part of the atrophied structure is concerned with which nuclei?
A) Fastigial nucleus
B) Globose nucleus
C) Emboliformis nucleus
D) Dentate nuclei
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
The given clinical scenario is suggestive of cerebellar syndrome. Phylogenetically, the oldest part of the atrophied structure i.e. the cerebellum is archicerebellum/ vestibulocerebellum and it is concerned with fastigial nucleus (connected to vestibular nuclei via descending pathways along with medullary/pontine reticular formations).
The image given below shows MRI scans of two brains. The brain on the left shows atrophy of the cerebellum in a person with cerebellar degeneration. The brain on the right shows a normal cerebellum.
Which of the following structures does the cell pointed in arrow inhibit? 424
A) Vestibular nuclei
B) Anterior horn of spinal
C) Basal ganglia
D) Deep nuclei of cerebellum
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
The image shows a histopathological section of the cerebellum. The cells marked with the arrow are Purkinje cells and they inhibit deep nuclei of the cerebellum.
The following slide from a rabies patient shows inclusion bodies in the Purkinje cells receiving input from:
A) Golgi cells
B) Granule cells
C) Climbing fibers
D) Mossy fibers
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
The given slide shows Negri bodies, which are eosinophilic, cytoplasmic inclusions found in the neurons of the Purkinje cells in a patient with rabies. The input to the Purkinje cells of the cerebellum come from the climbing fibers.
The image given below shows Negri bodies.
Q513.
Anatomy
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Vascular supply of BrainSource: Internal
Explanation ready
A 73-year-old hypertensive patient was rushed to the casualty following a transient ischemic attack. Angiography revealed stenosis of the internal carotid artery. Which part of this artery does not give any branch?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Cervical part
B) Petrous part
C) Cavernous part
D) Supracavernal part
Correct Answer:A
Explanation:
The given clinical scenario is suggestive of transient ischemic attack due to internal carotid artery stenosis. The cervical part of the internal carotid artery does not give off any branches.
The image given below shows the internal carotid artery.
Q514.
Anatomy
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Vascular supply of BrainSource: Internal
Explanation ready
A man presented with an excruciating headache and double vision. On examination, the following findings were observed. MRI revealed an aneurysm of the posterior communicating artery. The affected artery is a branch of . 434
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Posterior cerebral artery
B) Basilar artery
C) Internal carotid artery
D) Middle cerebral artery
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
The clinical scenario of ptosis, down and out eyes and dilated pupils is suggestive of
an oculomotor nerve palsy secondary to a posterior communicating artery aneurysm. The posterior communicating artery is a branch of the cerebral part of the internal carotid artery.
The image given below shows the posterior communicating arteries in the circle of Willis.
Q515.
Anatomy
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Vascular supply of BrainSource: Internal
Explanation ready
A 62-year-old man presents to the casualty with a severe headache, fever, and vomiting for the past 8 hours. His CT scan and CSF appearance are shown below. The affected vessels do not get a contribution from:
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Anterior cerebral artery
B) Middle cerebral artery
C) Posterior communicating artery
D) Posterior cerebral artery
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
These patient's clinical features as well as the CT scan showing blood in the cistern and the xanthochromatic CSF appearance are suggestive of subarachnoid haemorrhage. The affected vessels i.e. the circle of Willis do not get a contribution from the middle cerebral artery.
The circle of Willis is located in the interpeduncular fossa at the base of the brain. It is an anastomosis between the internal carotid arteries and vertebral arteries. It allows the blood entering from either artery to be distributed to both the cerebral hemispheres.
The arteries forming the circle of Willis are:
Anterior communicating artery
Anterior cerebral arteries
Internal carotid arteries
Posterior communicating arteries
Posterior cerebral arteries
Basilar artery
Q516.
Anatomy
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Vascular supply of BrainSource: Internal
Explanation ready
436 A woman presents with homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing as shown below. She complains of an inability to distinguish objects when they are placed in front of her. But when moved, she can observe and distinguish them. This is due to the occlusion of which artery?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Middle cerebral artery
B) Posterior cerebral artery
C) Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
D) Posterior choroidal artery
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The given clinical scenario with visual field defects and Riddoch phenomenon is suggestive of occipital lobe lesion occurring due to the occlusion of the posterior cerebral artery.
The visual cortex is supplied by the posterior cerebral artery. Its occlusion is commonly seen in head injury and may be associated with visual hallucinations, denial of blindness (Anton syndrome), and the Riddoch phenomenon (only moving visual targets are perceived). These lesions generally spare the central vision/macular vision.
The anatomical reason for this sparing is attributed to the uniqueness in the blood supply. The part of the occipital lobe representing the peripheral field vision is supplied by the posterior cerebral artery. Whereas, the area at the tip of the calcarine cortex representing the central macular vision, is supplied by a branch of the middle cerebral artery.
Q517.
Anatomy
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Vascular supply of BrainSource: Internal
Explanation ready
A 62-year-old man was diagnosed with stroke. A thrombus in the marked vessel will affect all of the following structures except: 437
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Choroid plexus of III ventricle
B) Midbrain
C) Pons
D) Lentiform nucleus
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
The marked vessel is posterior cerebral artery. It does not supply the pons, hence a thrombus in this artery will not affect the pons.
The branches of the posterior cerebral artery are:
Cortical branches
Occipital lobe - visual cortex
Temporal lobe - medial and inferolateral surfaces
Central branches
Thalamus
Subthalamus
Lentiform nucleus
Midbrain
Pineal gland
Superior and inferior colliculi
Medial and lateral geniculate bodies
Choroidal branches- choroid plexus of
Lateral ventricle
Third ventricle
The image given below shows the posterior cerebral arteries in the circle of Willis.
Q518.
Anatomy
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Vascular supply of BrainSource: Internal
Explanation ready
A hypertensive man suffered a sudden right brachiofacial paresis with dysarthria. CT showed a haemorrhage in the left basal ganglia and angiography revealed a Charcot-Bouchard aneurysm. The affected artery is a branch of:
Image not available for this question yet.
A) B
B) C
C) D
D)
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The given clinical scenario is suggestive of a Charcot-Bouchard aneurysm. The affected artery is the Charcot's artery which is the striate branch of the middle cerebral artery marked as 'C' in the above image.
Charcot-Bouchard aneurysms are located in the lenticulostriate vessels of the basal ganglia and are commonly associated with hypertension. Charcot's artery supplies the internal capsule and basal ganglia. It is also known as the 'Charcot's artery of cerebral haemorrhage'.
The image given below shows the circle of Willis at the base of the brain.
Q519.
Anatomy
Medium
4m
Image missing
Topic: Vascular supply of BrainSource: Internal
Explanation ready
441 A 62-year-old man had a severe head injury resulting in headaches, nausea, and vertigo. His CT scan is shown below. Where does the affected cerebral vein drain into?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) Great cerebral vein
B) Vein of Galen
C) Superior sagittal sinus
D) Inferior sagittal sinus
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
CT image showing a crescent-shaped hyperdense lesion, is suggestive of acute subdural hematoma. The head injury leads to a tear in the cerebral veins (predominantly the bridging veins like the superior cerebral vein) causing the hematoma. The superior cerebral vein drains into the superior sagittal sinus.
Veins of the cerebral hemispheres can be categorized into superficial and deep. The superficial veins chiefly drain the cerebral cortex, while the deep veins return blood from the deep structures of the cerebrum.
Superficial veins:
• Superior cerebral veins:
These veins drain the upper parts of the superolateral and medial surfaces of the cerebral hemisphere. They drain blood into the superior sagittal sinus.
• Inferior cerebral veins:
These veins return blood from the inferior aspect of the cerebral hemisphere into the transverse, superior petrosal, cavernous and sphenoparietal sinuses. Some also drain into the inferior sagittal sinus.
• Superficial middle cerebral vein:
This vein receives blood from veins on the superolateral surface. It terminates in the cavernous sinus.
Deep veins:
• Internal cerebral veins:
This pair of veins originates at the foramen of Munro and eventually anastomoses to form the great vein of Galen.
• Basal veins:
The two basal veins are closely related to the midbrain structures and drain into the great vein of Galen.
• Great cerebral vein:
The two internal cerebral veins unite to form the great cerebral vein before it passes beneath the corpus callosum and anastomoses with the straight sinus.
A needle is inserted into a particular space to withdraw CSF in an adult as shown below. At which level does this space terminate?
Image not available for this question yet.
A) S1
B) S2
C) L4
D) L2
Correct Answer:B
Explanation:
The procedure shown in the image is a lumbar puncture. In this, the needle is introduced in the subarachnoid space which ends at the lower border of the S2 vertebra.
A lumbar puncture can be done anywhere from L1 to S2 vertebra. Beyond S2, there are only meninges. However, lumbar puncture is most commonly performed at the level of L3 or L4.
459 A 29-year-old woman in labour re€uested Åor epidural analgesia. ‚elow which level would you administer the anaesthesia?
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A) ƒpper border oÅ L1
B) ƒpper border oÅ L3
C) Lower border oÅ L1
D) Lower border oÅ L3
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
Epidural anaesthesia is given during labour and the placement is usually preferred below L1 to avoid injury to the spinal cord. This is because the adult spinal cord terminates at the lower border of the L1 vertebra.
In children, it usually terminates at the upper border of the L3 vertebra.
Note: Coverage from dermatomes T10 to S1 is necessary for epidural analgesia during labor. For a cesarean section, a block from T4 to S1 is needed. However, since the spinal cord ends at the lower border of L1 in most adults, epidural analgesia is given below this level.
„hat is the total number oÅ nerve pairs in the spinal cord?
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A) 3…
B)
C)
D)
Correct Answer:D
Explanation:
There are a total of 31 pairs of spinal nerves.
In contrast, the number of vertebrae is 33. Due to the difference in the number of spinal segments and the number of vertebrae, the spinal segments don't correspond to the respective vertebrae.
The table below shows the vertebral level corresponding to different regions of the spinal cord: The T11 spine overlies the L3 spinal segment.
The T12 spine overlies the S1 spinal segment.
Regions
Upper cervic al
Lower cervic al
Upper thora cic
Lower thora cic
Spinal Segment( s)
C2 C6 T5 T10
Vertebral spi ne
C2 C5 T3 T7
Spinal segment corresponds t o
Same level
One vertebra above Two vertebrae above Three vertebrae above
All oÅ the Åollowing are true about grey rami communicantes except:
Image not available for this question yet.
A) ƒnmyelinated
B) Connected to spinal nerve
C) †reganglionic
D) †resent medial to white rami communicantes
Correct Answer:C
Explanation:
The grey rami communicantes are not preganglionic fibers. They are postganglionic fibers.
The sympathetic trunks on either side of the vertebral columns consist of a series of ganglia. They are connected to the spinal nerves by white and grey rami communicantes. The cell bodies of the preganglionic sympathetic neurons are located in the lateral horn in the spinal grey matter. They leave the cord in the ventral nerve roots to form spinal nerves. These fibers enter the sympathetic trunk in white rami communicantes. They synapse with the postganglionic sympathetic neurons in the sympathetic ganglia. The axons of the postganglionic neurons return to the spinal nerve through the grey rami communicantes.